2013年05月FRM一级模拟考试（一）
1.Monte Carlo simulation and the historical method are two means of calculating V AR. Which
of the following describes a disadvantage of the Monte Carlo method compared to the historical method of calculating V AR? The Monte Carlo method: （）
I Takes advantage of the normal distribution.
II Incorporates flexibility in modeling price paths.
A.I only
B.II only
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
2.Given the following information, which of the following amounts is closest to d (l.0), the
discount factor for the first year? （）
Bond
B
C
A Bond
Bond
in
years 0.5 1 2
maturity
Bond
9.00%
6.00% 12.00%
Coupon
99.573
Price 101.182 102.341
A.0.9099
B.0.9138
C.0.9655
D.0.9823
3.Lear, Inc., (Lear) operates a manufacturing business in a very competitive industry. Lear is
looking to exploit risk better than its competitors and cites its unused lines of credit ready for immediate or emergency use as a distinct advantage. The lines of credit are best described as a(n):
A.Experience advantage.
B.Flexibility advantage.
C.Resource advantage.
D.Speed advantage.
4. A portfolio manager received a report on his fund’s performance. According to the report, the
portfolio return was 2.5% with a standard deviation of 21% and a beta of 1.2. The risk-free rate over this period was 3.5%, the semi-standard deviation of the portfolio was 16%, and the tracking error of the fund was 2%. What is the difference between the value of the fund’s Sortino ratio (assuming the risk-free rate is the minimum acceptable return) and its Sharpe ratio? （）
A.0.563.
B.0.347.
C.-0.053.
D.-0.015.
5.Gloria Brown, FRM, calculated the intrinsic value of RTN Company and expects the stock to
generate a 25% annual return over the foreseeable future. However, Brown is concerned that
her price forecast may be too high. She conducted a hypothesis test and concluded that at a
5% significance level, the null hypothesis can be rejected that RTN Company’s investment
return would be equal to or less than 25% per year. The one-tailed test utilized a z-test.
Indicate the meaning of the significance level chosen by Brown and state the correct rejection
region. （）
Significance level Rejection region
A.Brown will reject a true null hypothesis 5% of the time z > 1.645
B.Brown will reject a false null hypothesis 95% of the time z < -1.645
C.Brown will reject a true null hypothesis 5% of the time z < -1.645
D.Brown will reject a false null hypothesis 95% of the time z > 1.645
6.Assume a 3-year bond with a face value of $100 pays a 3.5% coupon on a semiannual basis.
What is the price of the bond according to the following spot rates?
Maturity (years) Spot rate (%)
0.5 2.20%
1.0
2.25%
1.5
2.30%
2.0 2.35%
2.5 2.40%
3.0 2.45%
A.101.15.
B.102.85.
C.102.97.
D.103.07.
7.An investor owns a stock and is bullish over the short term. Which of the following strategies
will be the most appropriate one for this investor if the primary concern is to make a bet on
the volatility of the stock? （）
A. A covered call
B. A protective put
C.An at-the-money strip
D.An at-the-money strap
8.STT is a small mobile phone manufacturer that frequency makes investments in projects
overseas. The organization has $20 million in assets, which is comprised of 45% debt and
55% equity. A recent international project had a market risk premium of 5%, a country risk
premium of 2%, and a beta of 1.6 (based on historical information). STT’s current cost of
borrowing is 10%, with a default spread of 7% given a relevant risk-flee rate of 3%. What is STT’s weighted average cost of capital given their marginal corporate tax rate of 35%?
A.12.783%.
B.10.735%.
C.9.858%.
D.8.975%.
9.Paper Products Inc.’s research department developed a new type of environmentally friendly
paper. The marketing department surveyed a random sample of 100 people. The survey is designed to gauge customer interest level in the new product. The sample indicates an average purchase of 2,500 reams per year with a variance of 160,000 reams. The researcher’s supervisor is concerned that the sample size is too small. The researcher advises against increasing the sample size, stating that “there is a risk of sampling from more than one population.” Determine the standard error of the sample mean and indicate whether the researcher’s statement is correct or incorrect. （）
Standard error Researcher’s statement
A.8 Correct
B.40 Incorrect
C.8 Incorrect
D.40 Correct
10.Bond A has an effective duration of 12.13 and a 2-year key rate exposure of $4.04. You
would like to hedge it with a security with an effective duration of 2.48 and a 2-year key rate exposure of 0.81 per $100 face value. What amount of face value would be used to hedge the 2-year exposure?
A.$102.
B.$163.
C.$489.
D.$499.
11.You are given the following information about a call option:
?Time to maturity = 3 years.
?Continuous risk-free rate = 3%.
?Continuous dividend yield = 2%.
? N(d1) = 0.7.
What is the delta of this option（）
A.-0.64
B.0.36
C.0.66
D.0.70
12.Jimmy Deininger, FRM, is a portfolio manager who runs a large $400,000,000 long equity
portfolio. Relative to the S&P 500, Deininger’s portfolio has a beta of 1.07. Currently, S&P futures are trading at 1,368, and the futures multiplier is 250. Deininger wishes to create a
hedge for his portfolio for the next four months using S&P futures. How many futures contracts should Deininger buy or sell to hedge this portoflio?
A.Long hedge; 1,490 contracts.
B.Short hedge; 1,053 contracts.
C.Long hedge; 992 contracts.
D.Short hedge; 1,251 contracts.
13.You hold a $75 million portfolio with a duration of nine and a one-year hedging horizon.
There is an appropriate one-year futures contract quoted at 104-13 with a duration of eight and a contract size of $100,000. Which of the following actions should you undertake to provide an appropriate hedge for small changes in yield? （）
A.Short 639 futures contracts.
B.Long 639 futures contracts.
C.Short 809 futures contracts.
D.Long 809 futures contracts.
14. A loan portfolio is made up of ten noncorrelated loans, each with a value of $1 million and an
estimated probability of default of 3% in any given year. Recovery in the case of default is expected to be zero. Which of the following amounts is closest to the cumulative expected loss on the loan portfolio over two years? （）
A.$0.03 million.
B.$0.059 million.
C.$0.30 million.
D.$0.591 million.
15.An analyst determines that there is a 50% chance the economy will grow and that there is a
50% chance the economy will go into a recession. If the economy grows, there is a 60% chance that ABC stock will rise in price and a 40% chance it will fall in price. If a recession occurs, there is a 15% chance ABC’S stock price will rise and an 85% chance the price will fall. Given that ABC stock has risen in price, what is the probability the economy has grown?
A.30%.
B.50%.
C.70%.
D.80%.
16.What are the minimum values of an American-style and a European-style 3-month call option
with a strike price of $80 on a non-dividend-paying stock trading at $86 if the risk-free rate is 3%?
American European
A.$6.00 $6.00
B.$5.96 $6.00
C.$6.00 $6.59
D.$6.59 $6.59
17.Harriet Fields, an investment adviser specializing in selling municipal bonds, advertises on
television explaining their safety and security. The bonds she is currently selling are limited obligation bonds backed only by the revenue generated from the projects they fund, which include a housing project and a golf course. Fields tells her prospective clients that the bonds are safe, secure, and offer generous interest payments. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding Fields’s actions? （）
A.Fields did not violate the GARP Code of Conduct because municipal bonds are
generally regarded as being safe investments.
B.Fields violated the part of the GARP Code of Conduct dealing with confidentiality.
C.Fields violated the GARP Code of Conduct when she misrepresented the bonds by not
explaining their inherent risks.
D.Fields has not violated any of the ethical responsibilities related to the GARP Code of
Conduct.
18. A portfolio manager of an endowment wants to calculate a daily V AR for the portfolio. The
€10,000,000 portfolio is restricted from using derivative securities. The annual return is expected to be 10%, with a standard deviation of 15%. If the manager assumes there are 250 trading days in a year and uses a 1% level of significance, which of the following amounts is closest to the daily V AR using the delta-normal method? （）
A.-€217,043
B.-€221,350
C.-€241,100
D.-€245,100
19.When there are risky assets and a risk-free asset available, investors can achieve the best
combinations of risk and return by holding: （）
A.Some combination of the risk-free asset and any of the efficient portfolios of risky
assets.
B.The market portfolio.
C.Some combination of the efficient portfolios of risky assets.
D.Some combination of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio of risky assets.
20. A bank has a USD50,000,000 portfolio available for investing. The cost of funds for the
USD50,000,000 is 4.5%. The bank lends 50% of the assets to domestic customers at an average loan rate of 6.25%. The rest of the portfolio is lent to UK clients at 7%. The current exchange rate is USD1.642/GBP. At the same time, the bank sells a forward contract equal to the expected receipts one year from now. The forward rate is USD1.58/GBP. The weighted average return to the bank on its assets is closest to: （）
A. 1.99%
B. 2.13%
C. 2.26%
D. 4.61%
21.If the expected variance of a regression error term depends on the value of the independent
variable, then this: （）
A.Does not violate the assumptions of the classical linear regression model.
B.Would violate the assumptions of the classical linear regression model and is called
serial correlation.
C.Would violate the assumptions of the classical linear regression model and is called
homoskedasticity
D.Would violate the assumptions of the classical linear regression model and is called
heteroskedasticity
22.What economic capital charge should be applied to a bank portfolio, if at the 99% confidence
level, the portfolio will be worth at least $250 million at year-end? Assume that the expected year end portfolio value is $350 million. （）
A.$99 million
B.$l00million
C.$247.5 million
D.$250 million
23.Assume that a trader wishes to set up a hedge such that he sells $100,000 of a Treasury bond
and buys Treasury TIPS as a hedge. Using a historical yield regression framework, assume the DV01 on the T-bond is 0.072, the DV01 on the TIPS is 0.051, and the hedge adjustment factor (regression beta coefficient) is 1.2. What is the face value of the offsetting TIPS position needed to carry out this regression hedge?
A.$138,462.
B.$169,412.
C.$268,499.
D.$280,067
24. A $1,000 par bond with 22 years to maturity and a 4% semiannual coupon has a yield to
maturity of 5%. Assuming a 5 basis point change in yield, the convexity of the bond is closest to: （）
A.258
B.502
C.942
D.129
25.Between 1993 and 1995, Nick Leeson’s actions resulted in losses of approximately $1.25
billion and forced Barings into bankruptcy. Which of the following actions would least likely have prevented the bankruptcy of Barings’ Bank? （）
https://www.doczj.com/doc/cc7391357.html,rmation on account gains and losses being more transparent.
B.Management being more suspicious of huge reported profits.
C.All traders being required to meet SIMEX (Singapore International Monetary Exchange)
standards.
D. A system of checks and balances being established to detect wildly speculative
positions.
26. A bakery owner has decided to exit the business and sell her futures contracts. The contract
calls for the delivery of 100 tons of wheat in five months at a price of $105 per ton. The current price of wheat on the spot market is $110 per ton. The risk-free rate is 4% (continuously compounded) and the market rate of interest is 6% (continuously compounded).
Ignore trade and storage costs. Which of the following amounts is closest to the fair value for the contract? （）
A.$674
B.$759
C.$912
D.$1,111
27.Colleagues Benjamin Ecko and Bernard Charles recently discussed the application of the
normal distribution for random variables. Ecko claimed that the z-statistic measures the distance, in standard deviation units, that a given observation is from the population mean.
Charles claimed that there is a 95% chance that the z-statistic lies above negative 1.96.
Regarding the statements of Ecko and Charles: （）
A.Ecko is correct; Charles is correct.
B.Ecko is correct; Charles is incorrect.
C.Ecko is incorrect; Charles is correct.
D.Ecko is incorrect; Charles is incorrect.
28.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the factors that led to the financial
crisis at Metallgesellschaft Refining and Marketing? （）
A.There was a cash flow problem that constrained the company’s ability to fully execute
the hedge already in place.
B.The maturity mismatch between its short and long positions is widely believed to have
contributed to the problems.
C.The shifting of prices so that the petroleum spot prices were greater than petroleum
futures prices created a significant cash flow problem.
D.Gains and losses on customer contracts were realized when customers entered into the
contracts.
29.There are various bond interest payment classifications in use. Ignoring the risk of default,
which of the following types of bonds may result in payment of less than the specified or implied amount/rate of interest? （）
A.Income bonds
B.Zero-coupon bonds
C.Floating-rate bonds
D.Participating bonds
30.The S&P 500 Index is trading at 1,015. The S&P 500 pays an expected continuously
compounded dividend yield of 2%, and the continuously compounded risk-free rate is 4.1%.
The value of a 3-month futures contract on the S&P 500 is closest to: （）
A.1,020.34
B.1,030.60
C.1,036.54
D.1,078.84
31.Two firms, Bell-Con and Bit-Con, enter into a fixed-for-fixed currency swap, with an
agreement to make periodic payments annually. Bell-Con pays 3.5% in euros and receives 3% in U.S. dollars. At the beginning of the swap,. Bell-Con pays a principal amount to Bro-Con of USD 250 million, and Bro-Con pays EUR 200 million to Bell-Con. What amounts are exchanged every period, and what happens to the principal amounts at the swap’s conclusion?
A.Bell-Con will pay EUR 8.75 million to Bro-Con, Bro-Con will pay USD 6 million to
Bell-Con, and there will be no other payments exchanged at swap conclusion.
B.Bell-Con will pay FUR 7 million to Bro-Con, Bro-Con will pay USD 7.5 million to
Bell-Con, and the principal amounts will be re-exchanged at swap conclusion.
C.Bell-Con will pay EUR 7 million to Bra-Con, Bro-Con will pay USD 6 million to
Bell-Con, and there will be no other payments exchanged at swap conclusion.
D.Bell-Con will pay FUR 8.75 million to Bra-Con, Bro-Con will pay USD 7.5 million to
Bell-Con, and the principal amounts will be re-exchanged at swap conclusion.
32. A financial institution has entered into a plain vanilla currency swap with one of its
customers. The period left on the swap is two years with the institution paying 4.5% on USD120 million and receiving 2% on JPY3,500 million annually. The current exchange rate is 120 JPY/USD, and the flat term structure in both countries generates a 3% rate in the United States and a 0.5% rate in Japan. The current value of this swap to the institution is closest to: （）
A.$93.3 million
B.-$93.3 million
C.$118.1 million
D.-$118.1 million
33.SCU stock is currently priced at $106 per share, and the risk-free interest rate is 3.25%.
Assuming that SCU does not pay any dividends, what is the lower bound of an American put option on SCU that expires in three months and has an exercise price of $l10?
A.$0.
B.$0.48.
C.$3.11.
D.$4.00.
34.Zero-coupon bonds issued by the Treasury are called STRIPS (separate trading on registered
interest and principal securities). Which of the following statements regarding STRIPS and zero-coupon bonds is incorrect? （）
A.Longer-term C-STRIPS tend to trade cheap.
B.Shorter-term C-STRIPS tend to trade rich.
C.Investors generally pay a discount for zero-coupon bonds.
D.Zero-coupon bonds are generally more sensitive to interest rate changes than coupon
bonds.
35.An investor is looking to create an options portfolio on XYZ stock that will have virtually
zero Vega exposure while maximizing the ability to profit from increases in interest rates. If
the current price of XYZ is $50, which of the following would accomplish his goals? （）
A.Sell a call with a strike price of $50.
B.Buy a call with a strike price of $25.
C.Sell a put with a strike price of $50.
D.Buy a put with a strike price of $25.
36.Joe Brocato is currently following two stocks in the pharmaceutical industry: ABC and XYZ.
He is bullish on ABC, but bearish on XYZ. ABC is currently priced at $53.60 and XYZ is
currently priced at $9.80. He is considering an options strategy to capitalize on his
expectations. Brocato gathers the following three months of data on put and call options for
both stocks:
ABC:
call strike put
$8.50 $45.00 $0.20
4.40 $50.00 $0.50
$1.10 $55.00 $2.75
XYZ:
Call Strike Put
$2.50 $7.50 $0.15
$0.55 $10.00 $0.75
$0.10 $12.50 $2.75
In three months, assume ABC has increased in price by $1.00 while XYZ has dropped by
$1.67. Which of the following strategies would have been the most profitable in three
months?
A.Short the ABC put option with the $45 strike price, and short the XYZ call option with
the $7.50 strike price.
B.Go long the ABC put option with the $45 strike price, and go long the XYZ call option
with the $7.50 strike price.
C.Go long the ABC call option with the $55 strike price, and go short the XYZ put option
with the $10 strike price.
D.Short the ABC call option with the $55 strike price, and go long the XYZ put option
with the $10 strike price
37.An analyst takes a random sample of the returns on 225 stocks from a population with a
known variance of returns of 100. The standard error of the sample mean return would be closest to: （）
A.0.44
B.0.67
C. 1.50
D. 6.67
38.Assume that a binomial interest-rate tree indicates a 6-month period spot rate of 2.5% and the
price of the bond if rates decline is $98.45, and if rates increase is $96. The risk-neutral probabilities respectively associated with a decline and increase in rates if the market price of the bond is $97 correspond to: （）
A.0.1/0.9
B.0.9/0.1
C.0.2/0.8
D.0.8/0.2
39.The risk-free rate is 5% and the expected market risk premium is 10%. A portfolio manager is
projecting a return of 12%. The portfolio has a beta of 0.7, and the market beta is 1.0. After adjusting for risk, this portfolio is expected to: （）
A.Equal the performance predicted by the CAPM.
B.Outperform the CAPM return.
C.Underperform the CAPM return.
D.Unable to determine based on the information provided.
40. A portfolio manager of an endowment wants to compare the V AR estimates from the
delta-normal method to the historical simulation method. The €100,000,000 portfolio is restricted from using derivative securities. The daily return is expected to be 0.0004, with a daily standard deviation of 0.0095. The manager uses a 2% level of significance that has a z-value of 2.05. The manager ranked the 250 daily returns from last year from highest to lowest, and reports the lowest six returns to be: -0.0191, -0.0259, -0.0311, -0.0354, -0.0368, and -0.0384. What is the daily V AR using the delta-normal method compared to the historical simulation method? （）
A.The delta-normal method estimate is the same as that of the historical simulation
method.
B.The delta-normal method estimated V AR is -€910,000.
C.The historical simulation method estimated V AR is -€2,590,000.
D.The historical simulation method estimated V AR is -€3,680,000.
41. A bank borrows USD5 million at 4.5%, purchases euros on the spot market, and lends that
amount to a German firm at 6%. The euro spot rate is EUR1.12/USD. After one year, the exchange rate is EUR0.84/USD. The rate of return of this loan to the bank is closest to:（）
A. 1.5%
B. 3.5%
C.36.8%
D.77.8%
42.The current spot price for cotton is $0.325 per pound. The annual risk-free rate is 3.0%, and
the cost to store and insure cotton is $0.002 per pound per month. A 3-month futures contract for cotton is trading at $0.3368 pet pound. Is there an arbitrage opportunity available, and if so, how should an investor take advantage of it? （）
A.There is no arbitrage opportunity available.
B.Yes; the investor should sell the futures contract, borrow at the risk-free rate, and buy
the spot asset.
C.Yes; the investor should buy the futures contract, sell the spot asset, and lend at the
risk-free rate.
D.Yes; the investor should buy the futures contract, borrow at the risk-free rate, and buy
the spot asset.
43.If it is necessary to be long 2,500 deep-in-the-money call options in order to create a gamma
neutral position, which of the following actions would best restore the original delta-neutral position after the addition of the options? （）
A.Sell 1,250 shares of the underlying asset.
B.Buy 1,250 shares of the underlying asset.
C.Sell 2,500 shares of the underlying asset.
D.Buy 2,500 shares of die underlying asset
44.Downtown Savings (Downtown) is considering a loan to Fit Right Corporation (Fit Right).
Fit Right has requested a credit facility of $10 million of which $2 million will be used immediately. The bank has assessed an internal credit rating of BBB+ equivalent to a 2% default probability over the next year. Draw down upon default is assumed to be 60%. The bank has additionally estimated a 40% recovery rate based on pledged collateral. The standard deviation of EDF and LGD is 5% and 30%, respectively. The closest estimate of the Downtown’s adjusted exposure and unexpected loss is: （）
A.Adjusted exposure of $5,200,000 and unexpected loss of $270,000.
B.Adjusted exposure of $5,200,000 and unexpected loss of $350,000.
C.Adjusted exposure of $6,800,000 and unexpected loss of $270,000.
D.Adjusted exposure of $6,800,000 and unexpected loss of $350,000.
45. A financial institution created a model to measure interest rate volatility. The historical
distribution of interest rate volatility did not appear to be normally distributed due to the obvious large fat-tails. The firm is contemplating using a regime-switching volatility model
to capture the apparent existence of time-varying high and low interest rate volatility. Which of the following statements best characterize the implementation of a regime-switching model for this firm?
A.The interest rate distributions are conditionally normally distributed assuming static
interest rate volatility
B.The assumption of normality is not appropriate in this case, and therefore, a
regime-switching model is unlikely to work well
C.The probability of large deviations from normality occurring are more likely with a
regime-switching model
D.The regime-switching model may resolve the fat-tail problem
46.Yasuo Hamanaka, the lead copper trader for Sumitomo, attempted to corner the copper
market. Since the copper market was relatively small, Hamanaka had the potential to control and corner it. This trader did not use which of the following tactics to corner the copper market? （）
I Establishing a long dominant position in physical copper.
II Establishing a short dominant position in copper futures.
A.I only
B.II only
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
47.For a binomial random variable, B (number of trials = 12, probability of success = 0.4), what
are the mean and variance of this variable? （）
Mean Variance
A. 4.8 2.88
B. 4.8 1.92
C.7.2 2.88
D.7.2 1.92
48.Early exercise of an option is more likely for which of the following types of options?
（）
A.European call options on stocks paying large dividends
B.American call options on stocks paying small dividends.
C.American call options close to maturity.
D.American put options on stocks paying large dividends.
49.An investor buys a stock for $40 per share and simultaneously sells a call option on the stock
with an exercise price of $42 for a premium of $3 per share. Ignoring dividends and transaction costs, which of the following amounts represents the maximum profit the writer of this covered call can earn if the position is held to expiration? （）
A.$1
B.$2
C.$3
D.$5
50. A bank has $500 million in assets with a modified duration of 7 and $400 million in liabilities
with a modified duration of 5. Accounting only for duration effects, the impact of a 50-basis-point parallel upward shift in the yield curve on the bank’s equity value is closest to a: （）
A.$7.5 million decrease
B.$7.5 million increase
C.$15 million decrease
D.$15 million increase
51. A data quality scorecard can be used to monitor the success of a data governance program.
Data quality scores are created by using either base-level or complex metrics. Which of the following viewpoints regarding data quality scorecards is best described as using complex metrics to quantify the impact of each data quality problem?
A.Business impact view.
B.Business process view.
C.Data quality issues view
D.Data process issues view.
52.It is currently August 2010, and the spot price of soybeans is $5.05/bushel. Storage costs for
soybeans on a continuously compounded basis are $0.45/bushel annually. The appropriate continuously compounded interest rate is 8%. If a soybean farmer has just finished harvesting his crop but would like to sell half of the crop in February 2011 and half in May 2011 by going short futures contracts, which of the following statements is most accurate? The farmer should store his crop only if the: （）
A.February futures contract price is at least $5.48/bushel and the May futures contract
price is at least $5.70/bushel.
B.February futures contract price is at least $5.48/bushel and the May futures contract
price is at least $5.73/bushel.
C.February futures contract price is at least $5.50/bushel and the May futures contract
price is at least $5.70/bushel.
D.February futures contract price is at least $5.50/bushel and the May futures contract
price is at least $5.73/bushel.
53.If a 91-day U.S. Treasury bill (T-kill) is priced at a discount of 6.8%, what will an investor
actually pay for a $10,000 bill at issuance? （）
A.$9,320
B.$9,828
C.$9,830
D.$9,832
54.Which of the following statements regarding market, credit, and operational risk is correct?
（）
A.People risk relates to the risk associated with incompetence and lack of suitable training
of internal employees and/or external individuals.
B.Between two counterparties, presettlement risk is always higher than settlement risk.
C.Options are examples of financial instruments with non-directional risks.
D.Funding liquidity risk results from a large position size forcing transactions to influence
the price of securities
55. A large publicly held company refines crude oil into gasoline and sells gasoline wholesale
with long-term contracts at fixed prices. The firm also owns the land, with full rights, from which it pumps crude oil. The firm financed the purchase of the land by issuing floating-rate bonds. This firm could reduce the volatility of its earnings by entering into a(n): （）
I Interest-rate swap.
II Oil commodity swap.
A.I only
B.II only
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
56.You are reviewing the performance of a portfolio and have compiled the following
information.
Average return over the last year 13.75%
Benchmark average return over the last year 12.36%
16.90%
deviation
Standard
Beta 1.23
Tracking error 7.21%
deviation 13.72%
Semi-standard
Risk-free rate 5.35%
In relation to the portfolio’s performance, which of the following statements is correct? （）
I The information ratio for the portfolio is 0.192.
II The Sharpe ratio yields a result lower than the Sortino ratio but higher than the information ratio.
A.I only
B.II only
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
Use the following information to answer Question 57.
Regression Statistics
R squared 0.8537
R sq. adj. 0.8120
Std. error 10.3892
Num obs. 10
ANOV A
df SS MS F P-value Explained 2 4410.4500 2205.2250 20.4309 0.0012
Residual 7 755.5500 107.9357
Total 9 5166.0000
Error t-Stat P-value
Coefficients Std.
Intercept 35.5875 6.1737 5.7644 0.0007
X1 1.8563 1.6681 1.1128 0.3026
1.1615 6.3923 0.0004
X2 7.4250
57.Based on the results and a 5% level of significance, which of the following hypotheses
cannot be rejected? （）
A.H0: B0=0
B.H0: B1=0
C.H0: B2=0
D.H0: B1= B2=0
58.Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) experienced financial difficulty in the late 1990s.
Which of the following statements is false regarding their troubles? （）
A.The amount of their positions in swaps was very large, but due to offsetting positions,
the amount of their risk was in theory very small.
B.LTCM required their investors to invest for three years, thereby increasing funding risk.
C.LTCM obtained financing through repurchase agreements at very favorable terms.
D.Due to the size of their positions, LTCM could not liquidate their assets without selling
at large discounts.
59.Charmaine Townsend, FRM, has been managing a growth portfolio for her clients using a
screening process that identifies companies that have high earnings growth rates, Townsend has decided that because of a volatile economy, she is going to adopt a value strategy using a screening process that identifies companies that have low price-earnings multiples. Townsend will violate the GARP Code of Conduct if she makes this change in her investment process without: （）
A.Notifying her supervisor before she makes the change.
B.Promptly notifying her clients of the change.
C.Getting written permission from her clients in advance of the change.
D.Getting prompt written acknowledgment of the change from her clients within a
reasonable time after the change was made.
60.An options dealer sells equity call options. When sold, the options are at-the-money and the
firm will be delta-neutral hedged. Which of the following statements is correct? （）
I The options dealer will have a negative gamma and negative vega exposure.
II Over time, gamma and vega will have less of an impact on the value of the option dealer’s position if the option moves away from the money.
A.I only
B.II only
C.Both I and II
D.Neither I nor II
61.Which of the following statements is not a problem with multidimensional scenario analysis?
（）
A.Correlation of risk factors is ignored.
B.Determining how many risk factors to include is non-trivial.
C.Selecting a time period for parametric estimation is subjective.
D.Assigning weights to various scenarios is very complex.
62.Your firm uses a proprietary forecasting model that requires parameter estimates of random
variables that are believed to follow the Poisson distribution. You are attempting to assess the probability of the number of defects in an assembly production process for a given company.
Assume that there is a 0.005 probability of a defect for every production run. What is the probability of 7 defects in 1,000 production runs? （）
A. 3.0%
B. 4.4%
C.8.6%
D.10.4%
63.Which of the following statements accurately describes an advantage of the Brennan and
Schwartz model over the Cox-Ingersoll-Ross model for modelling interest rate dynamics?
（）
A.The Brennan and Schwartz model gives attention to interest rate volatility.
B.The Brennan and Schwartz model allows interest rate volatility to decline as rates fall.
C.The Brennan and Schwartz model gives attention to the mean reversion of interest rates.
D.The Brennan and Schwartz model is a more effective method for dealing with complex,
leveraged portfolios.
64.You are analyzing a portfolio that has a Jensen’s alpha of 4.75% and an actual return of
14.2%. The risk-free rate is 4.25% and the equity risk premium is 6%. Based on the
information provided, the beta of the portfolio is closest to: （）
A.0.77
B.0.87
C.0.97
D. 1.07
65.An options trader is attempting to judge whether an option’s premium is cheap or expensive
using a GARCH(1, 1) model to forecast volatility. The intercept of the model has a value of
0.000008, the latest estimate of variance is 0.78, and the parameter estimate on the latest
innovation is 0.16. If the latest volatility estimate from the model was 2.6% per day and the option’s underlying asset value changed by 3.4%, the trader’s estimate of the next period’s standard deviation is closest to: （）
A.0.03%
B.0.07%
C. 2.68%
D. 3.38%
66.An investor is about to deliver a short bond position and has four options to choose from as
listed below. The settlement price is $91.50. Based on the information provided, which of the four bonds is the cheapest to deliver? （）
Factor
Conversion
Price
Bond Quoted
1 98 1.02
2 122 1.27
3 105 1.08
4 112 1.15
A.Bond 1
B.Bond 2
C.Bond 3
D.Bond 4
67. A bond portfolio consists of bonds with various maturities. The portfolio manager expects the
yield curve to become steeper. In that case, which of the following statements is correct?
（）
A. A strip hedge will be a more effective hedge than a stack hedge.
B. A stack hedge will be a more effective hedge than a strip hedge.
C. A cross-hedge will be more effective than an immunization hedge.
D.An immunization hedge will be more effective than a cross-hedge.
68.Bob Hatfield has his own money management firm with two clients. The accounts of the two
clients are equal in value. It is Hatfield’s opinion that interest rates will fall in the near future.
Based upon this, Hatfield begins increasing the bond allocation of each portfolio. In order to comply with Best Practices in the GARP Code of Conduct, the analyst needs to: （）
https://www.doczj.com/doc/cc7391357.html,rm the clients of the change and tell them it is based upon an opinion and not a fact.
B.Make sure that the change is identical for both clients.
C.File a report with the SEC of the new portfolio allocation.
D.Perform all of these functions.
69.Stampede Capital Management has entered into a currency swap with Polar Investments in
which Stampede pays 3.5% per annum in euros and receives 2.8% per annum in dollars.
Stampede pays a principal amount of $130 million to Polar, while Polar pays €100 million to Stampede at inception of the swap. The yield curve in both Germany and the United States is upward-sloping with the following interest rates:
1-Year 2-Year
Germany 4.00% 4.50%
States
2.00% 2.25%
United
The swap will last for another two years and the current exchange rate is
$1.33/€. What is the value of the currency swap to Stampede?（）
A.$0.21 million.
B.$0.54 million
C.$1.06 million
D.$1.95 million
70.As research analyst at his firm, Richard Starr is assigned the task of examining the relevance
of the capital asset pricing model by running hypothesis tests on the risk-free rate and the market risk premium. Starr’s supervisor makes the following statement: “For the CAPM to be valid, the mean 1-year Treasury bill rate should equal 4% and the mean market risk premium should be positive.” Starr collects historical rate of return data for 1-year Treasury bills and for the annual market risk premiums over the past 30 years. He then conducts tests of hypotheses using the historical Treasury bill and market risk premium data. To examine the claims of his supervisor, identify whether Starr should perform one-tailed or two-tailed tests of these hypotheses. （）
Risk-free rate hypothesis Market risk premium hypothesis
A.One-tailed test One-tailed test
B.One-tailed test Two-tailed test
C.Two-tailed test One-tailed test
D.Two-tailed test Two-tailed test
71.An analyst at Bergman International Bank has been asked to explain the calculation of V AR
for linear derivatives to the newly hired junior analysts. Which of the following statements best describes the calculation of V AR for a linear derivative on the S&P 500 Index? （）
A.For a futures contract, multiply the V AR of the S&P 500 Index by a sensitivity factor
reflecting the percent change in the value of the futures contract for a 1% change in the
index value.
B.For an options contract, multiply the V AR of the S&P 500 Index by a sensitivity factor
reflecting the percent change in the value of the futures contract for a 1% change in the
index value.
C.For a futures contract, divide the V AR of the S&P 500 Index by a sensitivity factor
reflecting the absolute change in the value of the futures contract per absolute change in
the index value.
D.For an options contract, divide the V AR of the S&P 500 Index by a sensitivity factor
reflecting the percent change in the value of the futures contract for a 1% change in the
index value.
72.An analyst is conducting a two-tailed z-test to determine if small cap returns are significantly
different from 10%. The sample size is 200 and the computed z-statistic is 2.3. Using a 5%
level of significance, which of the following statements is most accurate? （ ） A. Reject the null hypothesis and conclude that small cap returns are not significantly
different from 10%.
B. Fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that small cap returns are significantly
different from 10%.
C. Fail to reject the null hypothesis and conclude that small cap returns are close enough to
10% that we cannot say they are significantly different from 10%.
D. Reject the null hypothesis and conclude that small cap returns are significantly different
from 10%.
73. Given the information in the table below and given that the 2-year spot rate is 10.263%, what
is the appropriate action of an arbitrageur? Assume annual coupons and compounding. （ ）
Bond A Bond B Bond C
Maturity in years 1 2 2
Coupon rate 0% 0% 10%
Price 95.2381 82.6446 100
A. The arbitrageur should short the 1-and 2-year zero-coupon bonds and buy the 2-year
coupon bond.
B. The arbitrageur should buy the 1-and 2-year zero-coupon bonds and short the 2-year
coupon bond.
C. The arbitrageur should buy the 1-year zero-coupon and 2-year coupon bond and short
the 2-year zero-coupon bond.
D. The arbitrageur should short the 1-year zero-coupon and 2-year coupon bond and buy
the 2-year zero-coupon bond.
74. Greg Barns, FRM, and Jill Tillman; FRM, are discussing the hypothesis they wish to test
with respect to the model represented by Y i = B 0 + B 1×X i +εi . They wish to use the standard statistical methodology in their test. Barns thinks an appropriate hypothesis would be that B 1=0 with the goal of proving it to be true. Tillman thinks an apropiate hypothesis to test is B 1 = 1 with the goal of rejecting it. With respect ro these hypotheses: （ ）
A. The hypothesis of neither researcher is appropriate.
B. The hypothesis of Barns is appropriate but not that of Tillman.
C. The hypothesis of Tillman is appropriate but not that of Barns.
D. More information is required before a hypothesis can be set up.
75. The current price of a stock is $25. A call option is available with a $20 strike price that
expires in three months. If the underlying stock exhibits an annual standard deviation of 25%, the current risk-free rate is 4.5%, N(d 1)=0.9737, and N(d 2)=0.9652, the Black-Scholes-Merton value of the call is closest to: （ ）
A. $4.39
B. $4.87
C.$5.25
D.$5.89
76.Capital Returns, LLC, (Capital) is a hedge fund corporation that frequently enters positions to
reduce default risk. Capital has entered a derivatives contract with a third party that has a AAA rating. Capital only enters into positions with third parties with AAA ratings to eliminate the high cost of analyzing them. Which of the following items is least likely to be a concern of Capital?
A.Counterparty credit risk.
B.Decreased correlations in market downturns.
C.Expanding in areas where risk is not accounted for.
D.Failure to discover all risks.
77.An investor buys a December 2010 put of XYZ limited with a strike of USD 65 for USD 5,
and sells a December 2010 put of XYZ limited with a strike of USD 50 for USD 3. Which of the following pairs represents the type of option strategy and the maximum profit of the strategy, respectively? （）
Option strategy Maximum profit
15
A.Bull
spread USD
15
B.Bear
spread USD
13
spread USD
C.Bull
13
D.Bear
spread USD
78.Based on the information provided below, which of the following amounts are closest to the
discount factors for d(0.5) and d(l.0), respectively? （）
Maturity Coupon Price
months 5.70% 101.426
6
year 15.00%
102.642
1
years 8.20% 99.574
2
d(0.5) d(1.0)
A.0.98615 0.8860
B.0.96528 0.8860
C.0.98615 0.8760
D.0.96528 0.8760
79.Jeff Spider, FRM, is a consultant for SPA Consulting. He has been engaged by Limbo
Company to select an equity investment manager for their defined benefit pension plan.
Spider is considering Cutter Investments. The money management firm’s 10 year performance is as follows: 35.1%, 15.6%, 12.0%, 22.2%, 50.3%, -20.0%, -33.4%, -30.6%,
30.8%, 13.0%. From the data provided, Spider calculated the following statistics: （）
9.5%
?Mean
?Median 14.3%
? Excess kurtosis -0.9761
2010年武钢杯上机考试模拟试题 一、选择题：（150题共75分，在提供的四个或者三个答案中有一个正确，答对每题得0.5分，答错不得分。） 1.在复吹转炉冶炼过程中选择底吹供气强度的原因( )。 A．钢种 B．钢水温度 C．铁水成份 D．脱碳速度 答案: D 2.氧化钙(CaO)-氧化亚铁(FeO)-氧化硅(SiO2)三元状态图的3个顶点表示：( ) A．CaO-FeO-SiO2渣系组成的氧化物 B．分别表示CaO、FeO、SiO2三个氧化物 C．分别表示CaO、FeO、SiO23个纯氧化物及其相应的纯氧化物的熔点状况D．没有什么代表性 答案：C 3.氢气溶解在钢液中，使钢产生( )。 A．含氧量提高 B．冷脆 C．白点 D．时效硬化 答案: C 4.随着钢中( )含量的增加，其硬度和强度提高，塑性和冲击韧性降低。A．硅 B．铝 C．铅 D．碳 答案: D 5.凝固铸坯的脆性转变区的温度在( )。 A．25～273K B．500～600℃ C．700～900℃ D．900～1000℃ 答案: C 6.产生缩孔废品的主要原因( )。 A．飞溅 B．铸速快 C．不脱氧 D．二次氧化 答案: B 7.实践证明铁水中Mn/Si比值为( )时可以改善化渣，脱S以及提高炉衬寿命。A．0.6～0.8 B．0.8～1.0 C．1.0～1.2 答案: B 8.拉乌尔定律适用于稀溶液的( )。 A．溶质 B．溶剂 C．溶质和溶剂 答案: B 9.关于氧气顶吹转炉中的碳氧反应，下列叙述中哪一条是正确的：( )。 A.冶炼初、中、后期的脱碳速度是快-快-慢 B.冶炼初期脱碳速度几乎是随着冶炼时间直线增加 C.冶炼中期脱碳速度取决于供氧强度
二年级锅炉司炉考试模 拟题 HUA system office room 【HUA16H-TTMS2A-HUAS8Q8-HUAH1688】
1 判断题表压力是指压力表测得的读数值，是相对压力。 √作答正确 2 判断题燃煤中掺入水分，不利于通风。×作答正确 3 判断题煤中的水分和挥发分全部析出后残留下来的固体物质，称为固定碳。×作答正确 4 判断题除污器的作用是排出热水锅炉中的泥渣和污垢。 ×作答正确 5 判断题燃油燃烧器油嘴的作用是利用较高的压力将油从喷孔中高速喷出达到良好的雾化。√作答正确 6 判断题双层炉排操作正常时，其下层炉排应添加新煤。 ×作答正确 7 判断题锅水中的氯离子含量越小越好，含量过高易加速对锅炉的腐蚀 √作答正确 8 判断题水位表更换玻璃板后应微开水旋塞对新装玻璃板进行预热。 ×作答正确 9 判断题锅炉升火时要比正常运行时引风机电机负荷要低。 ×作答正确
10 判断题疏水器的作用是在蒸汽管道中自动排出凝结水同时阻止蒸汽外逸。√作答正确 11 判断题冲洗压力表存水弯管后，应立即将三通旋塞调整到压力表正常工作的位置。√作答错误 12 判断题连续排污装置也叫表面排污装置。√作答正确 13 判断题过热器的作用是提高蒸汽压力。×作答正确 14 判断题风机在单位时间内能够输送空气或者烟气的体积，称为风机的风量。×作答错误 15 判断题电动离心泵在启动之前必须往吸水管和泵内灌满水。 √作答正确 16 判断题电动离心泵启动时应先开电动机再开进水阀。× 作答正确 17 判断题下降管应布置在炉膛中以吸收辐射热。×作答正确 18 判断题煤在固定炉排上的燃烧属于悬浮燃烧。×作答正确
二级锅炉司炉考试 1、【判断题】特种设备作业人员在作业中应当严格执行特种设备的操作规程和有关的安全规章制度。（√） 2、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》要求使用单位可以不接受特种设备的定期检验。（×） 3、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》规定，特种设备安全管理人员、检测人员和作业人员应当严格执行安全技术规范和管理制度，保证特种设备安全。（√） 4、【判断题】为保持锅炉受热面的传热效果，需定期清除管壁上的积灰。（√） 5、【判断题】当几台锅炉的蒸汽并入使用蒸汽母管时，锅炉的蒸汽压力应在低于系统压力0.02－0.05MPa时进行。（√） 6、【判断题】气体燃料的燃烧只有与空气的混合和燃烧两个过程。（√） 7、【判断题】热水锅炉应设防止或减轻因热水系统的循环水泵突然停运造成的锅水汽化的措施。（√） 8、【判断题】在用锅炉定期检验，司炉工应打开锅炉上所有人孔、手孔、检查孔，使锅炉得到充分冷却和通风。（√）
9、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》规定，特种设备生产、经营、使用单位对其生产、经营、使用的特种设备应当进行自行检验和维护保养。（×）10、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》规定：特种设备生产、经营、使用单位应当建立健全特种设备安全和节能责任制度。（√） 11、【判断题】锅炉防腐包括运行锅炉的防腐和停用锅炉保护两项工作。（√） 12、【判断题】汽包锅炉工作压力>1.6MPa锅炉的水压试验的压力是1.25倍锅炉工作压力。（√） 13、【判断题】《锅炉安全技术监察规程》规定：锅炉的化学清洗。从事锅炉清洗的单位，应当按照安全技术规范的要求进行锅炉清洗，清洗前应办理开工告知，并且接受特种设备检验检测机构实施的锅炉清洗过程监督检验。（×） 14、【判断题】受热面管子内壁上形成盐垢，减弱了传热，使管壁温度升高（√） 15、【判断题】给水切断阀应装在锅筒（锅壳）和给水止回阀之间，并与给水止回阀紧接相连。（√） 16、【判断题】工业锅炉上常用的除渣机有刮板除渣机和螺旋除渣机（√） 17、【判断题】弹簧安全阀在锅炉运行中若常在规定压力以下启跳，运行人员可用调整螺母将弹簧压紧，防止锅炉泄压。（×） 18、【判断题】有机热载体液相炉循环油泵全部损坏不能运转时，应紧急停炉。（√）
《C程序设计基础》模拟考试题 一、选择题（每题2分。共23道选择题） 1、关于C程序的叙述，错误的说法是（） A、C程序总是从主函数开始执行 B、C程序中定义的第一个函数是主函数 C、在主函数中可以调用其他函数 D、一个C程序可以包括多个函数 2、C语言的基本数据类型包括（） A、char B、s truct C、s tring D、typedef 3、C语言的关键字是（） A、while B、p rintf C、m ain D、FILE 4、错误的C标识符是（） A、e2 B、n ame_ C、A_B D、2e 5、在下列运算中，优先级最低的运算符是（） A、= = B、= C、&& D、+ 6、设a、b和c都是int型变量，且a=7，b=8，c=9，则表达式（a*b）/c + 6 - 14%c的值是（） A、6 B、7 C、8 D、9 7、下列一维数组说明中，错误的是（） A、int a[]={1,2,3}; B、int a[5]; C、int n=5, a[n]; D、int a[5]={1,2,3}; 8、执行语句：printf(“a\nb”)输出的结果是（） A、a\nb B、ab C、第一行输出a,第二行输出b
D、不能输出 9、要表示年龄（age）在18到25之间，正确的表达式是（） A、18<=age<=25 B、18<=age && age<=25 C、18<=age || age<=25 D、18<=age and age<=25 10、设有定义int a，*p；下列赋值语句中，正确的是（） A、p=a; B、p=&a; C、p=*a; D、*p=&a; 11、若已经定义char a[10]={“abcd”}, *p=a；则表达式*(p+1)的值是（） A、abcd B、bcd C、b D、语法错误 12、若已经定义struct stu{int a,b; } student; ，则下列叙述中正确的是（） A、stu 是结构变量 B、student 是结构变量 C、student 是结构类型 D、a和b是结构型变量 13、设有定义int a[10], *p=a; 下列对数组元素a[1]的引用中，错误的是（） A、p[1] B、*(++a) C、*(++ p) D、*(a+1) 14、下列叙述中，错误的是（） A、不同函数中可以使用相同的变量名 B、全局变量和局部变量可以同名 C、形式参数是局部变量 D、main() 函数中定义的变量在整个程序中都可 15、设有函数定义：void p(int x){printf(“%d”, x);} 则正确的函数调用是（） A、p(3); B、a=p(3); C、printf("%d"; p(3)); D、p(int x); 16、有如下程序段union u{int a; int b; float c;}vu; vu.a=1; vu.b=2; vu.c=3;则vu.a的值是（） A、1 B、2 C、3 D、以上都不对 17、设有如下定义：int x=2 ,y; int fun(int *a){return *a+1;}下列函数调用中，实际参数正确的 是（） A、y=fun(x);
潮汐车道的意思是说在高峰期或者特殊情况下可以按交通指挥双向行驶的车道所以有去和来两个箭头也就是这个意思 在匝道上把速度提高到每小时50公里，然后进入加速车道，加速到每小时60公里，然后平滑的进入行车道。而不是在匝道上直接提速到每小时60公里就进入行车道 油箱内燃油已到最低液面是黄色发动机供油系统出现异常是红 点火锁开关档位设置方式。其含义是：LOCK、切断电源，锁定方向盘；ACC、接通附件电源（比如收音机等附件）ON、接通除起动机外的全车全部电源；START、接通起动机电源，起动发动机。（起动后松手钥匙，会自动弹回ON档位）供你参考， START是方向盘锁，在这个位置方向盘就锁上了。ON是空档，一般停车就是这个也可以停到START位置，有的车停车是强制停到START位置。ACC是一档，也就是打开一些用电器接通电源。LOCK是点火档，着车用的 LOCK 锁死汽车，一般的车钥匙放到这个档位就等于锁死了方向盘，方向盘不能有太大的活动。 ACC 2：ACC 给全车通电，收音机、车灯等可以正常使用，不可以使用空调。 ON 3：ON除了发动机，其余的基础设备都是开着的，可以为方向盘解锁，可以使用空调，但空调的制冷效果不是很好。正常行车时钥匙处于ON状态，这时全车所有电路都处于工作状态。START 4：START发动汽车，启动发动机，耗油，开起车子，空调的制冷效果会变好。START档是发动机启动档位，启动后会自动恢复正常状态也就是ON档。 未购置交强险的车辆上路行驶，不按规定投保机动车第三者责任险的，扣留车辆，购置交强险，处依照规定投保交强险保费二倍罚款；上道路行驶的机动车未放置保险标志的，扣留车辆，罚款200元，记1分 未放检验合格标志的才是扣留机动车 小型汽车（C1）准驾车型：小型、微型载客汽车以及轻型、微型载货汽车；轻型、微型专项作业车，小型、微型自动挡载客汽车以及轻型、微型自动挡载货汽车，低速载货汽车，三轮汽车。 交警的面部对着哪个方向就是在指挥哪个方向的车，减速慢行是右手左转弯待转是左手！你们要看清交警手势，他本来是手臂平直，接着他手臂轻轻压低，摆动。这是变道。手臂降低到腰部摆动，那是转弯。仅供参考 指示标志都没有文字，有文字的都是指路标志
1 判断题水在一个标准大气压下，温度为4℃时，体积最小，密度最大。√作答正确 2 判断题燃煤中掺入水分，不利于通风。×作答正确 3 判断题挥发硫可以燃烧放出热量，所以在锅炉燃煤中含量越多越好。×作答正确 4 判断题风机在单位时间内能够输送空气或者烟气的体积，称为风机的风量。√作答正确 5 判断题按结构不同，锅炉可分为蒸汽锅炉和热水锅炉两类。 ×作答正确 6 判断题蒸汽锅炉的回水是蒸汽做功后的凝结水，利用时不必进行水质检测×作答正确 7 判断题除污器的作用是排出热水锅炉中的泥渣和污垢。 ×作答正确 8 判断题酚酞碱度又称总碱度或全碱度×作答正确 9 判断题锅炉给水泵的给水压力必须高于锅炉的工作压力。 √作答正确 10 判断题水位表更换玻璃板后应微开水旋塞对新装玻璃板进行预热。×作答正确 11 判断题锅水中的氯离子含量越小越好，含量过高易加速对锅炉的腐蚀√作答正确 12 判断题立式升降式止回阀一般应安装在竖直管道上。 ×作答正确 13 判断题定期排污应在锅炉低负荷时进行。√ 作答正确 14 判断题锅炉升火时要比正常运行时引风机电机负荷要低。 ×作答正确 15 判断题所谓快装锅炉，就是所需安装时间很短的锅炉。 ×作答正确 16 判断题电动离心泵启动时应先开电动机再开进水阀。 ×作答正确 17 判断题燃油燃烧器油嘴的作用是利用较高的压力将油从喷孔中高速喷出达到良好的雾化。√作答正确 18 判断题强制循环锅炉介质的流动动力主要来自水泵的压力。 √作答正确 19 判断题煤在固定炉排上的燃烧属于悬浮燃烧。× 作答正确 20 判断题在锅筒内工作可以使用明火照明。× 作答正确
21 判断题两人以上进入锅筒内工作时，锅炉外面可无人监护。 ×作答正确 22 判断题压力表的玻璃板上应划红线指示出工作压力。 ×作答正确 23 判断题锅炉房不应与住宅相连。√作答正确 24 判断题热水锅炉安全阀排放管应有防冻措施，保证排放畅通。 √作答正确 25 判断题锅炉风机、水泵的能耗由于不影响锅炉热效率，所以节能与否无所谓。×作答正确 26 判断题负压燃烧的锅炉，其炉膛和烟道的负压越低越有利于锅炉效率的提高。×作答正确 27 判断题锅炉能效测试方法有反平衡法、正平衡法。 √作答正确 28 判断题对难以着火的无烟煤，链条炉应布置高而短的后拱。 ×作答正确 29 判断题《特种设备安全监察条例》规定，特种设备生产、使用单位的分管负责人应当对本单位特种设备的安全和节能全面负责。×作答正确 30 判断题《特种设备安全监察条例》规定，特种设备安全技术档案应当包括特种设备的设计文件、制造单位、产品质量合格证明、使用维护说明等文件以及安装技术文件和资料。√作答正确 31 单选题煤发热量的计量单位是（）。 A. A、KJ/Kg B. KJ/t C. KJ/g D. KJ/h A 作答正确 32 单选题下列燃料中燃烧时火焰最小的是（）。 A. 烟煤 B. 无烟煤 C. 贫煤 D. 褐煤 B 作答正确 33 单选题表征金属材料在外力作用下抵抗塑性变形（不可恢复变形）和断裂的能力的力学性能是（）。 A. 强度 B. 韧性 C. 硬度 D. 塑性 A 作答正确 34 单选题过去工程计量单位10 kgf/cm2约等于现在法定单位制的（）。 A. 0.01Mpa B. 0.1 Mpa
慈溪市2018年初中毕业生学业水平模拟考试 科学试题 考生须知： 1．全卷分试题卷I、试题卷II和答题卷。试题卷共10页，有4个大题，33个小题。满分为180分，考试时间为120分钟。 2．请将学校、、班级、座位号、号分别填写在试题卷和答题卷的规定位置上。 3．答题时，把试题卷I的答案在答题卷上用2B铅笔涂黑、涂满。将试题卷II的答案用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔书写，答案必须按照题号顺序在答题卷各题规定区域作答，做在试题卷上或超出答题区域书写的答案无效。 4．本卷可能用到的相对原子质量：H-1 C-12 O-16 Na-23 S-32 Cl-35.5 Ca-40 Ba-137 5．本试卷g取10N/kg。 试题卷Ⅰ 一、选择题（本题共15小题，第1～10小题，每小题4分，第11～15小题，每小题3分， 共55分。请选出每小题中一个符合题意的选项，不选、错选均不给分） 1．下图是《小蝌蚪找妈妈》水墨画邮票。下列关于图中生物的说法中正确的是 A．邮票中动物均用鳃呼吸 B．邮票中动物均属于恒温动物 C．邮票中虾、蟹属于软体动物 D．邮票中的鱼、乌龟、青蛙属于脊椎动物 2．下列各图所表达的相关科学容正确的是 A．过滤 B．称取氯化钠 C．光的折射 D．杠杆的力臂
3．某太空站的能量转化示意图如下图，下列有关说法错误的是 A．光电转换器中光能转化为电能 B．水电解系统中化学能转化为电能 C．在能量转化中水可以被循环利用 D．燃料电池系统可将化学能转化为电能 4．加热试管中的物质时，与防止试管炸裂无关的是 A.保持试管外壁干燥 B.试管夹夹在试管中部 C.先预热再对药品集中加热 D.加热固体时试管口略向下倾斜 5．下图是氢核聚变简图，请据图判断下列说法中正确的是 A．图中b核和c核的质子数不同 B．氢核聚变过程中元素种类不会改变 C．图中a和b分别代表不同种元素的原子核 D．原子弹主要是利用了核聚变释放出来的能量 6．下列有关生产实践的说法，错误的是 A.带土移植---减少根部损伤提高成活率 B.合理密植---充分利用太 C.移栽剪枝---降低蒸腾作用减少水分散失 D.树怕扒皮---导管受损减弱无机盐的运输 7．小科对新型LED灯带很好奇，取一段剖开后发现，灯带中的LED灯是串联后通过电源适配器接入照明电路（交流电）。取其中一只LED灯接在电池两端，灯不亮，对调电池正负极后灯亮了，用手试摸，点亮的灯几乎不发热。以下推断符合上述实验事实的是 A．LED灯主要是将电能转化为能 B．单只LED灯工作电压是220V C．灯带中一只LED灯断路后其他灯还能亮D．电源适配器将交流电转变为直流电8．从下列图片中不能获取的信息是 A．硅原子是由原子核和电子构成的 B．分子之间有间隔 C．水分子受热运动速率加快 D．构成物质的粒子有分子、原子和离子
考驾照科目一理论考试必背要点及速记方法(2019年最新整理) 一、必背要点 1机动车在道路上发生故障，需要停车排除时，驾驶人应当立即开启危险报警闪光灯并在来车方向设置警告标志（如果是高速路上警告要在车后面的150米之外）。 2上高速路的车最低时速是要求60公里，最高不得超过120公里，如果高速路同方向有2条车道，右侧车的速度范围为60公里到100公里，左侧车的速度范围为100公里到120公里。如果有同方向有3条的车道，最右侧的速度范围为60公里到90公里，中间的为90公里到110公里，最左侧的为110公里到120公里。所以超车当然是要从左侧超车。 3只要涉及到罚款的题目不是选罚20到200就是选罚200到2000.20到200的罚款可以和警告同时处罚，200到2000的罚款可以和扣留机动车同时处罚。 4扣车与吊销驾照题目选题方法，只要是车有问题就扣车，如果是人有问题就吊销驾照。 5我现在没有驾照，却驾驶我表哥的车，又被交警抓了，我要处200到2000元的罚款，15日以下的拘留。我表哥也要处200到2000的罚款，并被吊销驾驶证。 6没有限速标志、标线的城市道路的最高速度为30公里，公路的最高速度为40公里，只有一条机动车道的城市道路最高50公里，只有一条机动车道的公路最高为70公里。 7凡是题目中没有说是在高速路上，而行驶有麻烦的都是选30公里，如果是高速路，题目中有“能见度小于200米”，答案就选60公里，同样的，看到“能见度小于100米”就选“50公里”，“能见度小于50米”就选“20公里”。 8左转开左转向灯，右转开右转向灯，如果紧急停车与雾天行车，雨天行车，还有牵引车时都要开危险报警闪光灯，另外雾天行车还要开近灯光 9三个先行原则：转弯的机动车让直行的车辆先行，右方道路来车先行，右转弯车让左转弯车先行。 10机动车不得停车的距离判断：在站点如公交站，急救站都是选30米以内，在易发事故的路段，如交叉路口，转弯路等，都是选50米以内。 11交通事故后，逃逸导致他人死亡处处7年以上15年以下有期徒刑，逃逸情节恶劣处3到7年有期徒刑，违法交通法规导致重大伤亡（而没逃逸）处3年以下有期徒刑。 12“红灯停，绿灯行，黄灯亮了等一等”。说明红灯是禁止通行，绿灯表示准许通行，黄灯表示警示。 13公路交通标志分为主标志和辅助标志两大类。主标志中有警告标志、禁令标志、指示标志和指路标志四种。 （1）警告标志是警告车辆、行人注意危险地点的标志； （2）禁令标志是禁止或限制车辆、行人交通行为的标志； （3）指示标志是指示车辆、行人行进的标志；
二级司炉工模拟考试第六套(附带正确答案) 1 判断题锅炉运行时要控制锅炉压力不能超过额定工作压力。 √作答正确 2 判断题表压力是指压力表测得的读数值，是相对压力。√作答正确 3 判断题传热是指热从一物体传到另一物体，或从物体的一部分传到另一部分的现象。√作答正确 4 判断题所谓快装锅炉，就是所需安装时间很短的锅炉。×作答正确 5 判断题燃油炉燃烧所需要的空气是通过调风器送入炉膛的。√作答正确 6 判断题管道的热膨胀应首先考虑加装补偿器进行补偿。×作答正确 7 判断题电动离心泵的叶轮直径越大其出水压力越高。√ 作答正确 8 判断题强制循环锅炉介质的流动动力主要来自水泵的压力。√作答正确 9 判断题位于炉排两侧的下集箱俗称防焦箱。√作答正确 10 判断题锅炉给水泵的给水压力必须高于锅炉的工作压力。√作答正确 11 判断题合理的定期排污操作，对两个排污阀总是先开启的先关，后开启的后关。 ×作答正确 12 判断题锅炉升火时要比正常运行时引风机电机负荷要低。×作答正确 13 判断题沸腾床的布风系统是由风室、布风板和风帽三部分组成。√作答正确 14 判断题电动离心泵在启动之前必须往吸水管和泵内灌满水。√作答正确 15 判断题蒸汽锅炉长期连续运行时，每小时所产生的蒸汽量称为这台锅炉的蒸发量。 √作答正确 16 判断题锅壳锅炉的烟管管束是辐射受热面。×作答正确 17 判断题电动离心泵启动时应先开电动机再开进水阀。×作答正确 18 判断题水冷壁是布置在炉膛内侧的对流受热面。×作答正确 19 判断题凡额定蒸发量小于10t/h的锅炉，给水均不需要除氧×作答正确 20 判断题蒸汽锅炉不允许采用水封式安全装置。×作答正确 21 判断题两人以上进入锅筒内工作时，锅炉外面可无人监护。×作答正确 22 判断题热水锅炉循环水泵的进水管和出水管上均应装设压力表。√作答正确 23 判断题在锅筒内工作可以使用明火照明。×作答正确 24 判断题使用锅炉的个人不能办理锅炉的使用登记。×作答正确 25 判断题对人体危害最大的是飘尘，它可在空中飘浮几小时甚至几年，能随人的呼吸进入肺部，黏附于支气管壁肺泡壁上，危害人们的身体健康。√作答正确 26 判断题锅炉的煤闸板的冷却用水应尽可能循环使用，风机轴承、循环水泵轴承的冷却水和水力除渣冲灰用水不应循环使用。×作答正确
2020二级锅炉司炉模拟考试试题 1、【判断题】链条炉排适用于固体、液体和气体燃料。（×） 2、【判断题】燃煤锅炉在燃烧过程中，必须根据入炉燃料量的变化相应的调节风量。（√） 3、【判断题】当内部检验和外部检验同在一年进行时，应首先进行内部检验，然后再进行外部检验。（√） 4、【判断题】一般情况下，锅炉烟道漏风不会影响排烟热损失。（×） 5、【判断题】2014年1月1日起施行的《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》中所称的特种设备是指涉及生命安全、危险性较大的锅炉、压力容器（含气瓶）、压力管道、电梯、起重机械、客运索道和大型游乐设施七类设备。（×） 6、【判断题】燃料一般可分为固体燃料、气体燃料和液体燃料。（√） 7、【判断题】已严重结成水垢的锅炉，在采用锅内加药处理时，应预先进行除垢清洗，以免脱落的水垢堆积或阻塞管道（√） 8、【判断题】在用锅炉定期检验，司炉工应打开锅炉上所有人孔、手孔、检查孔，使锅炉得到充分冷却和通风。（√）
9、【判断题】不同的有机热载体绝对不可以混用。（×） 10、【判断题】当热载体炉发出超温报警时，应立即停泵。（×） 11、【判断题】锅炉房设计时必须采取有效措施，减轻废气、废水、废渣和噪声对环境的影响，排出的有害物和噪声应符合国家现行有关标准的规定。（√） 12、【判断题】锅炉安全技术监察规程》规定：D级锅炉中的汽水两用锅炉应当按照规定办理使用登记，D级锅炉中的其他锅炉不需要办理使用登记。（√） 13、【判断题】锅炉给煤分层燃烧，是按煤粒大小进行筛分，多数采用从炉排面起，由下到上，按大块、中块、小块分层堆。（√） 14、【判断题】压力表的铅封损坏时应停止使用。（√） 15、【判断题】持有《特种设备作业人员证》的人员，必须经用人单位的法定代表人（负责人）或者其授权人雇（聘）用后，方可在许可的项目范围内作业。（√）16、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》规定，禁止使用国家明令淘汰和已经报废的特种设备。（√） 17、【判断题】锅炉的给煤调速系统不得采用变频调速装置。（×） 18、【单选题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》所称的县级以上地方特种设备安全监督管理部门在现行体制下是指( )。（ B ）
一、判断题(每题2分) 1.2015年新增的贫困人口中，来自于返贫者的比例要小于来自于非贫困者的比例。（） 正确 错误 2.WHO报告认为：70%慢病与压力和应激有关。（） 正确 错误 3.爱因斯坦说，提出一个问题比解决一个问题更重要，这是说就科学研究而言，只要得出提出问题就足够了。（） 正确 错误 4.城市和农村的区域差异主要是文化水平的差异。（） 正确 错误 5.据国际禁毒组织统计，全球吸毒成瘾者近6000万人。（） 正确 错误 6.科学是人类的一种活动。（） 正确 错误
7.农业仍是国民经济的“短腿”，农村仍是国家发展的“短板”，这是我国实施乡村振兴战略的重大意义之一。( ) 正确 错误 8.十九大报告提出扶贫要与扶志扶智相结合。( ) 正确 错误 9.素养的创新精神特点是指素养是一个在教育学习和实践中形成的知行合一的有机体，是一个渐近累积的过程。( ) 正确 错误 10.所谓宪法修正案，就是在保持宪法文本文字不变的情况下，根据修改年代的不同另起序号，一直添加，根据后法优于前法或者新法优于旧法的原理，来判断实际有效的规范。( ) 正确 错误 11.我国社会信用体系的建设发源于政务信用领域。( ) 正确 错误 12.我国网络新闻使用率占83.8%、网络视频75%。( ) 正确
13.在知识产权侵权方面，专利侵权判定很容易。( ) 正确 错误 14.发明专利一定比实用新型专利价值高。( ) 正确 错误 15.情绪对我们影响太大，但只会影响身体健康，不会影响心理健康。( ) 正确 错误 16.烦恼是自寻的，快乐也是自己的选择。( ) 正确 错误 17.我国对于灾害信息发布的原则是要及时、准确、公开、透明的原则。( ) 正确 错误 18.脱贫攻坚的责任体系是中央统筹、省负总责、市县抓落实。( ) 正确 错误 19.生态、绿色资源也是扶贫脱贫好资源。( ) 正确
1、这个标志是何含义？ A、高速公路界牌编号 B、高速公路里程编号 C、高速公路命名编号 D、高速公路路段编号 2、驾驶人在行车中经过积水路面时，应怎样做？ A、特别注意减速慢行 B、迅速加速通过 C、保持正常车速通过 D、低档加速通过 3、这个标志是何含义？ A、两侧变窄 B、右侧变窄 C、左侧变窄
D、宽度变窄 4、行车中遇到正在进行作业的道路养护车辆、工程作业车时要注意避让 5、这个标志是何含义？ A、分向车道 B、右转车道 C、掉头车道 D、左转车道 6、路面上导向箭头是何含义？ A、指示前方道路是Y型交叉口 B、指示前方道路是分离式道路 C、指示前方道路仅可左右转弯 D、指示前方道路需向左右合流
/ 34 7、 山区道路对安全行车的主要影响是什么？ A 、 道路标志少 B 、 交通情况单一 C 、 坡长弯急，视距不足 D 、 车流密度大 8、 使用伪造、变造的行驶证一次记几分？ A 、 12分 B 、 6分 C 、 3分 D 、 2分 9、 机动车在高速公路行驶，下列做法正确的是？ A 、 可在路肩停车上下人员 B 、 可以紧急停车带停车装卸货物 C 、 可在减速车道或加速车道上超车、停车
D、非紧急情况时不得在应急车道行驶或者停车 10、这个标志是何含义？ A、地点距离 B、行驶路线 C、行驶方向 D、终点地名 11、夜间驾驶机动车在窄路、窄桥会车时正确的做法是使用远光灯。 12、在一般道路倒车时，若发现有过往车辆通行，应怎样做？ A、继续倒车 B、鸣喇叭示意 C、主动停车避让
D、加速倒车 13、这样停放机动车有什么违法行为？ A、停车占用人行道 B、在公共汽车站停车 C、在有禁停标志路段停车 D、在非机动车道停车 14、这个标志的含义是警告前方道路有障碍物，车辆减速绕行。 15、这个标志是何含义？ A、左转车道 / 34
《高级热力司炉工》 考试时间：120分钟 考试总分：100分 遵守考场纪律，维护知识尊严，杜绝违纪行为，确保考试结果公正。 1、当循环停滞时，汽包的上升速度（）水的向下流动速度时，造成汽泡停滞，形成汽塞。（ ） A.大于 B.小于 C.等于 D.不大于 2、若蒸汽锅炉的水冷壁出口和下降管入口距离太近，将会引起（）（ ） A.循环倒流 B.循环停滞 C.汽水分层 D.下降管带气 3、强制循环热水锅炉的工作原理是靠水泵的（）推动锅水在锅炉中流动的。（ ） A.压头 B.流量 C.转速 D.吸上高度 4、自然循环蒸汽锅炉的工作原理是根据上升管中汽水混合物和下降管中水的（）迫使锅水进行循环的。（ ） A.重量差 B.密度差 C.质量差 D.体积差 姓名：________________ 班级：________________ 学号：________________ --------------------密----------------------------------封 ----------------------------------------------线---------------------- ---
5、带蒸汽容积的自然循环热水锅炉，系统回水从锅炉（）引入。（） A.上集箱 B.下集箱 C.下锅筒 D.上锅筒 6、燃料的低位发热量是指从燃料的高位发热量中扣出燃料中（）燃烧生成的水和燃料带的水分汽化的吸热量。（） A.硫 B.氢 C.碳 D.氮 7、为了避免出现下降管带汽现象，使下降管不受热，通常将下降管布置在（）。（） A.炉外 B.炉内 C.内壁 D.炉墙 8、为了避免发生汽水分层故障，锅炉的顶部或底部的上升管不允许（）放置。（） A.平行 B.水平 C.垂直 D.分层 9、为了避免发生循环停滞和倒流故障，在运行操作上应尽量使各（）受热均匀。（） A.上升管 B.下降管 C.省煤气 D.集箱 10、在同一循环回路中，当并联的各上升管受热不均匀时，受热弱的管中汽水混合物的重度必然（）受热强的管中汽水混合物的重度，受热弱的管内可能流 速降低，甚至处于停止状态导致循环停滞。（）
1、对违法驾驶发生重大交通事故且构成犯罪的，不追究其刑事责任。 2、冰雪道路对安全行车的主要影响是什么？ A、电器设备易受潮短路 B、能见度降低，视野模糊 C、行驶阻力增大 D、制动性能差，方向易跑偏 3、车辆在山区道路行车下陡坡时，不得超车。 4、驾驶人有使用其他车辆保险标志嫌疑的，交通警察可依法扣留车辆。 5、行车中遇有前方发生交通事故，需要帮助时，应怎样做？ A、尽量绕道躲避 B、立即报警，停车观望 C、协助保护现场，并立即报警 D、加速通过，不予理睬 6、同车道行驶的车辆前方遇到下列哪种车辆不得超车？ A、超载大型货车 B、执行任务的消防车 C、大型客车 D、中型客车 7、泥泞道路对安全行车的主要影响是什么？ A、行驶阻力变小 B、车轮极易滑转和侧滑 C、能见度低，视野模糊 D、路面附着力增大
8、夜间行车，遇对面来车未关闭远光灯时，应减速行驶，以防两车灯光的交汇处有行人通过时发生事故。 9、路面上的菱形块虚线是何含义？ A、车行道纵向减速标线 B、道路施工提示标线 C、车行道横向减速标线 D、车道变少提示标线 10、驾驶机动车在没有道路中心线的狭窄山路怎样会车？ A、速度慢的先行 B、重车让空车先行 C、靠山体的一方先行 D、不靠山体的一方先行 11、打开机动车车门时，不得妨碍其他车辆和行人通行。 12、驾驶人违反交通运输管理法规发生重大事故后，逃逸或者有其他特别恶劣情节的，处7年以上有期徒刑。 13、路中心的黄色斜线填充是何含义？ A、可跨越对向车道分界线 B、双侧可跨越同向车道分界线 C、禁止跨越对向车道分界线
D、单向行驶车道分界线 14、这个仪表是何含义? A、电流表 B、压力表 C、水温表 D、燃油表 15、距离宽度不足4米的窄路50米以内的路段不能停车 16、这个导向箭头是何含义？ A、指示向右转弯或掉头 B、指示直行或右转弯 C、指示直行或向右变道 D、指示直行或掉头
2017科目一模拟考试100题 考试时间45分钟，每题1分，90分及格 1、事故报警时，要向交警提供事故地点、人员伤情、车辆号牌等信息，协助交警快速定位到达现场 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 2、车辆在路边起步后应尽快提速，并向左迅速转向驶入正常行驶道路 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 3、女驾驶人穿高跟鞋驾驶车辆，不利于安全行车 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 4、驾驶小型载客汽车在高速公路行驶的最低车速为90公里/小时 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 5、机动车仪表板上（如图所示）亮时，提醒驾驶人安全带插头未插入锁扣
图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 6、驾驶人违反交通运输管理法规发生重大事故致人死亡的处3年以上有期徒刑 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 7、牵引故障车，牵引与被牵引的机动车，在行驶中都要开启危险报警闪光灯 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 8、这个标志的含义是提醒车辆驾驶人前方是堤坝路段 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确
?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 9、记分满12分的驾驶人拒不参加学习和考试的将被公告驾驶证停止使用 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 10、机动车仪表板上（如图所示)亮，提示两侧车门未关闭 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 11、驾驶机动车遇到这种信号灯，可在对面直行车前直接向左转弯 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。
12、持有大型客车、牵引车、城市公交车、中型客车、大型货车驾驶证的驾驶人从业单位等信息发生变化的，应当在信息变更后三十日内，向驾驶证核发地车辆管理所备案 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 13、驾驶机动车行经城市没有列车通过的铁路道口时允许超车 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 14、驾驶机动车遇到前方道路拥堵时，可以借用无人通行的非机动车道行驶 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 15、这个标志的含义是警告车辆驾驶人前方是学校区域 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确
一级锅炉司炉 1、【判断题】《锅炉安全技术监察规程》规定：热水锅炉运行中遇有下列情况时：水循环不良，或者锅炉出口水温上升到与出水压力相对应的饱和温度之差大于20℃；应当立即停炉。（×） 2、【判断题】《锅炉安全技术监察规程》规定：B级及以下（除额定压力P≥ 3.8MPa的所有锅炉）全自动锅炉可以不设跟班锅炉运行操作人员，但是应当建立定期巡回检查制度。（√） 3、【判断题】水位计是用于观察测量锅炉内液面变化情况的装置。（√） 4、【判断题】热水锅炉出口介质是热水，所以其出口水温不可能超过100℃。（×） 5、【判断题】处于饱和状态下的蒸汽叫饱和蒸汽。（√） 6、【判断题】《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》规定，禁止使用国家明令淘汰和已经报废的特种设备。（√） 7、【判断题】管道在坡敷设时，应考虑管道的坡度及坡向，在最低处留有放液口，在最高处设放气口。（√） 8、【判断题】锅炉进行水压试验时，水压应缓慢地升降。（√） 9、【判断题】采用变频调节，流量变化越大，节电效果越好。（√）
10、【判断题】按阀芯开启时的提升高度，安全阀可分为全启式和微启式两种。（√） 11、【判断题】锅炉运行中，安全阀全部失效，但压力表正常，锅炉仍可继续运行。（×） 12、【判断题】制定《中华人民共和国特种设备安全法》最重要的目的是制裁各种特种设备安全违法犯罪行为。（×） 13、【判断题】全自动软水器具有自动再生，任何操作都无需管理的优点。（×） 14、【判断题】汽水共腾的原因之一：高负荷运行。（√） 15、【判断题】锅炉防腐包括运行锅炉的防腐和停用锅炉保护两项工作。（√） 16、【判断题】当锅炉水位低于安全水位线称缺水事故。（√） 17、【判断题】锅炉进行水压试验的目的是确定最高工作压力。（×） 18、【判断题】供采暖通风用热的锅炉，宜采用热水作为供热介质。（√） 19、【判断题】主汽阀、安全阀、排污阀、水位计可以与锅炉一起做超水压试验（×） 20、【判断题】使用单位可以直接对其使用的特种设备进行改造工作（×） 21、【判断题】做好维护保养和定期检验工作是特种设备使用单位的一项义务，也是提高设备的使用寿命的一项重要手段。（√）
2019二级锅炉司炉工考试理论题库(附答案) 一、判断题（共45题,共45分） 1.《国务院关于修改(特种设备安全监察条例)的决定》圈务院549号令规定，特种设备使用单位使用未取得生产许可的单位生产的特种设备或者将非承压锅炉、非压力容器作为承压锅炉、压力容器使用的，由特种设备安全监督理部门责令停止使用，予以没收，处2万元以上10万元以下罚款。（）（1分）（）.标准答案：正确 2.使用锅炉的单位须向当地锅炉安全监察机构登记注册，取得使用证，才能将锅炉投入运行。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 3.锅炉定期检验是法定检验，是以安全为直接目的。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 4.锅炉房通向室外的门只有冬季才可把门锁住。（）（1分）（）.标准答案：错误 5.锅炉爆管的现象之一：炉膛由负压燃烧变为正压燃烧，并且有炉烟和蒸汽从炉墙的门孔及漏风处大量喷出。（）（1分）（）.标准答案：正确 6.锅炉水位的高低是锅炉安全运行重要环节,因此,司炉工观察水位时能看到水位表中水位中水位正常即可。（）（1分）（）.标准答案：错误
7.超期未检或检验_不合格的锅炉可以继续使用。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：错 8.未经定期检验或者检验不合格的特种设备，可以继续使用。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：错误 9.过热器管爆破的现象之一:蒸汽流量不正常地下降,且流量不正常地小于给水流量。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 10.锅炉在计划停炉后的检修过程中，发现锅炉本体受压元件有裂纹、变形、渗漏钢架变形等，不作为锅炉事故处理。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 11.饱和蒸汽温度随其压力降低而升高。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：错误 12.从炉排上方高速吹入炉膛的气流称为二次风。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 13.蒸汽锅炉的出力是指锅炉每小时产生的蒸汽量。（）（1分）（） .标准答案：正确 14.在温度一定的情况下，当水的蒸发速度与水蒸汽的凝结速度
模拟试题一 一．单项选择题 1．指令指针寄存器是（C）。 ＡBPＢSP ＣIPＤPSW ２．DA１DB６７Ｈ NUM EQU８０Ｈ 则执行AND DA１，NUM语句后DA1中的内容是（D）； ＡＥ７ＨＢ８０Ｈ Ｃ６７ＨＤ０ ３．与指令ＭＯＶＡＸ，ＮＯＴ０Ｆ０Ｈ等效的汇编语言指令是（B ）。 A MOV AX，0FH B MOV AX，0FF0FH C MOV AX，000FH D MOV AX，0F0H 4．一个有16个字的数据区，它的起始地址是70A0H：DDF6，则这个数据区最末一个字单元的物理地址是（C ）。 A 7E806H B 7E814H C 7E815H D 7E80BH 5．可用作基址变址寻址或寄存器间接寻址的寄存器是（D）。 A AX，BX，CX，DX B DS，ES，CS，SS C SP，BP，IP，BX D SI，DI，BP，BX 6．在串操作指令中，下列描述中不正确的是（C ）。 A REP MOVS B B REP STOSB C REPE CMPSB D REP LODSB 7．ORG 0030H DA1 DB 0，‘0’，30H 偏移地址为0030H字存储单元的内容是（A ）。 A 3000H B 00H C 0030H D 3030H 8．编写分支程序，在进行条件判断前，可用指令构成条件，其中不能形成条件的指令是（D ）。 A CMP B SUB C AN D D MOV 9．将高级语言的程序翻译成机器码程序的实现程序是（A）。 A 编译程序 B 汇编程序 C 解释程序 D 目标程序 10．设DS=1E4AH，偏移地址为0056H，该字节的物理地址为（D ）。 A 1E4A6H B 1E456H C 1E556H D 1E4F6H 11．假设下列指令中所用的标识符类型均为字类型属性的变量，下述指令中正确的指令是（B ）。 A MOV WORD-DA1，WORD-DA2 B MOV WORD-DA[BX+4*4][DI]，SP C MOV AX，WORD-DA[DX] D MOV [BX][SI]，3
2019科目一模拟考试100题 考试时间45分钟，每题1分，90分及格 1、事故报警时，要向交警提供事故地点、人员伤情、车辆号牌等信息，协助交警快速定位到达现场 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 2、车辆在路边起步后应尽快提速，并向左迅速转向驶入正常行驶道路 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 3、女驾驶人穿高跟鞋驾驶车辆，不利于安全行车 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 4、驾驶小型载客汽车在高速公路行驶的最低车速为90公里/小时 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 5、机动车仪表板上（如图所示）亮时，提醒驾驶人安全带插头未插入锁扣
图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 6、驾驶人违反交通运输管理法规发生重大事故致人死亡的处3年以上有期徒刑 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 7、牵引故障车，牵引与被牵引的机动车，在行驶中都要开启危险报警闪光灯 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 8、这个标志的含义是提醒车辆驾驶人前方是堤坝路段 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确
?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 9、记分满12分的驾驶人拒不参加学习和考试的将被公告驾驶证停止使用 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 10、机动车仪表板上（如图所示)亮，提示两侧车门未关闭 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。
12、持有大型客车、牵引车、城市公交车、中型客车、大型货车驾驶证的驾驶人从业单位等信息发生变化的，应当在信息变更后三十日内，向驾驶证核发地车辆管理所备案 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：正确。 13、驾驶机动车行经城市没有列车通过的铁路道口时允许超车 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 14、驾驶机动车遇到前方道路拥堵时，可以借用无人通行的非机动车道行驶 ?正确 ?错误 ?正确答案：错误。 图片无法显示请点这里 ?正确