2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷1）
英语
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours
Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
Duration: 3 hours
This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability —and the cherry blossoms —disappear!
Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour
Duration: 3 hours (4 miles)
Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mail as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.
Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
Duration: 3 hours
Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route(路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.
Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour
Duration: 3 hours (7 miles)
Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capital Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are make for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.
21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?
A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.
B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.
C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,
D.C.
D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bike Tour.
22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?
A. Meet famous people.
B. Go to a national park.
C. Visit well-known museums.
D. Enjoy interesting stories.
23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?
A. City maps.
B. Cameras.
C. Meals.
D. Safety lights.
B
Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.
In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she's been able to put a lot of what she's learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, I4, Finn, 13. and Jack, 11
We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant," she explains, “I pay ￡5 is for a portion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food. But sometimes we're not aware how cheaply we can make this fo od ourselves.”
The eight-part series (系列节目)，Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV's Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market.
With food our biggest weekly household expenses, Susanna and Matt spend time with a different family each week. In tonight’s Faster special, they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebratio n with less expensive but still tasty recipes.
24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?
A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.
B. She has started a new programme.
C. She dislikes working early in the morning.
D. She has had a tight budget for her family.
25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?
A. He buys cooking materials for her.
B. He prepares food for her kids.
C. He assists her in cooking matters.
D. He invites guest families for her.
26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph4?
A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.
B. Provide some advice for the readers.
C. Add some background information.
D. Introduce a new topic for the discussion.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart
B. Balancing Our Daily Diet
C. Making yourself a Perfect Chef
D. Cooking Well for Less
C
Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was sill populated by hunter-gatherers , small tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 1200 languages between them.
Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialization, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalization and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over.
At present, the world has about 6800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1000; Africa 2400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6000, which means that half
the world's languages are spoken by fewer people than that.
Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busum in Cameroon (eight remaining Speaker), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark) none of these seems to have much chance of survival.
28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?
A. They developed very fast.
B. They were large in number.
C. They had similar patterns.
D. They were closely connected.
29. Which of the following best explains “dominant” underlined in paragraph 2?
A. Complex.
B. Advanced.
C. Powerful.
D. Modern.
30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6000 people at present?
A. About 6800
B. About 3400
C. About 2400
D. About 1200
31. What is the main idea of the text?
A. New languages will be created.
B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in fewer languages.
C. Human development results in fewer languages.
D. Geography determines language evolution.
D
We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn technology at the first sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep using our old devices（装置）well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for the environment –and our wallets –as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the news ones that do the same things.
To figure out how much power these devices are using. Callie Babbitt and her colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked the environmental costs for each product throughout its life –from when its minerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s. Devices were grouped by generation. Desktop computers, basic mobile phones, and box-set TVs defined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997. And MP3 players, smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002, before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.
As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn't throw out our old ones. “The living-room television i s replaced and gets planted in the kids’ room, and suddenly one day, you have a TV in every room of the house,” said one researcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four per household in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just keeping these o ld devices – we continue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt’s team, old desktop monitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with their energy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions（排放）more than doubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.
So what's the solution（解决方案）? The team's date only went up to 2007, but the researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced old products with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as a tablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on demand environment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cut energy consumption by 44%.
32. What does the author think of new devices?
A. They are environment-friendly.
B. They are no better than the old.
C. They cost more to use at home.
D. They go out of style quickly.
33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research?
A. To reduce the cost of minerals.
B. To test the life cycle of a product.
C. To update consumers on new technology.
D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.
34. Which of the following uses the least energy?
A. The box-set TV.
B. The tablet.
C. The LCD TV.
D. The desktop computer.
35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?
A. Stop using them.
B. Take them apart.
C. Upgrade them.
D. Recycle them.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Color is fundamental in home design –something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looki ng for a place to relax after a long day?
36 , color is the key to make a room feel the way you want it to feel.
Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.
38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors and baskets that most of us used to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa, small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable.
Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofa, dinner tables or bookshelves.
39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.
The large color decisio n in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors. Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .
A. While all of them are useful
B. Whatever you’re looking for
C. If you’re experimenting with a color
D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with
E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces
F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time
G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节完型填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
During my second year at the city college, I was told that the education depart ment was offering a “free” course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits. I __41__ the idea of taking the class because, after all, who
doesn’t want to ___42___ a few dollars? More than that, I’d always wanted to learn chess. And, even if I weren’t __43__ enough about free credits, news about our__44__was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which __45__I wound be learning from one of the game’s __46__. I could hardly wait to __47__him.
Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this __48__was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it __49__that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to __50__ the class, among other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to __51__ what we would learn in class to our future professions and __52__ to our lives. I managed to get an A in that __53__ and learn life lessons that have served me well beyond the __54__ .
Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I’m still putting to use what he __55__ me: “The absolute most important __56__ that you learn when you play chess is how to make good __57__. On every single move you have to __58__ a situation, process what your opponent (对手) is doing and __59__ the best move from among all your options.” These words still ring true today in my __60__ as a journalist.
41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down
42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay
43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired
44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor
45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant
46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest
47. A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat
48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job
49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible
50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe
51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare
52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally
53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment
54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation
55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised
56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill
57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments
58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control
59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate
60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don’t have to run fa st or for long 62 (see) the benefit. You may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running.
While running regularly can’t make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).
The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise … it’s probably running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercises to 68 (strength) your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good runn ing shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it’s always 69 (energy). If you are
time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华，你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客，发邮件向你询问有关习俗，请你回复邮件，内容包括：
1.
2.到达时间
3.合适的礼物
4.餐桌礼仪
注意：1. 词数100左右
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
2005年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 本试卷分为第一卷（选择题）和第二卷（非选择题）两部分.第一卷1至13页。第二卷14至17页.考试结束，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回. 第一卷 注意事项： 1．答第一卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。 2．每小题选出答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。不能答在试卷上。 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt ? A．￡19.15. B．￡9.15. C．￡9.18. 答案是B. 1．How much will the woman pay if she buys two skirts ? A．$18. B．$19. C．$20. 2．What will the speakers discuss ? A．A report . B．A computer . C．A report on computer . 3．What are the speakers talking about ? A．A child . B．A room . C．A present . 4．What can we learn from this conversation ? A．The woman does not get along well with the man . B．The woman does not get along well with here roommate . C．T he man will talk with the woman’s roommate . 5．Where are the two speakers now ? A．On the first floor . B．On the fourth floor . C．On the fifth floor. 第二节（共15小题；每题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What was the woman doing before she went home ? A．Typing a report . B．Rewriting a report . C．Reviewing a report . 7．Where did the woman have her dinner ?
绝密★启封前试卷类型A 2017年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国1卷）
英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分) 略 第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Pacific Science Center Guide ◆Visit Pacific Science Center’s Store Don’t forget to stop by Pacific Science Center’s Store while you are here to pick up a wonderful science activity or remember your visit. The store is located(位于) upstairs in Building 3 right next to the Laster Dome. ◆Hungry Our ex hibits will feed your mind but what about your body? Our café offers a complete menu of lunch and snack options, in addition to seasonal specials. The café is located upstairs in Building 1 and is open daily until one hour before Pacific Science Center closes. ◆Rental Information Lockers are available to store any belongings during your visit. The lockers are located in Building 1 near the Information Desk and in Building 3. Pushchairs and wheelchairs are available to rent at the Information Desk and Denny Way entrance. ID required. ◆S upport Pacific Science Center Since 1962 Pacific Science Center has been inspiring a passion(热情) for discovery and lifelong learning in science, math and technology. Today Pacific Science Center serves more than 1.3 million people a year and beings inquiry-based science education to classrooms and community
绝密★启用前2017年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A．￡ 19.15. B．￡9.18. C．￡9.15. 答案是C。 1．What will the woman do this afternoon?
A．Do some exercise. B．Go shopping. C． Wash her clothes. 2．Why does the woman call the man? A ．To cancel a flight. B． To make an apology. C． To put off a meeting. 3．How much more does David need for the car? A．$ 5,000. B．$20,000. C．$25,000. 4．What is Jane doing? A．Planning a tour. B．Calling her father. C．Asking for leave. 5 ．How does the man feel? A．Tied. B．Dizzy. C．Thirsty. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does Jack want to do? A. Watch TV. B. Play outside. C. Go to the zoo. 7. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At home. B. In a cinema. C. In a supermarket. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does Richard do?
2015真题（卷一） A. 伦敦运河博物馆每月脱口秀 除8月以外，我们的脱口秀节目将在每月第一个周四的19:30拉开序幕，持续到21:00左右结束。门票价格合理，无需预定。 11月7日场 运河先驱演讲者：克里斯*路易斯 詹姆斯*布林德利是人们公认的早期大运河的主要工程师之一，同时也是一名培训师，指导别人如何设计和建设大运河。克里斯*路易斯将向听众阐述布林德利是如何在培养早期“土木工程师”过程中做出如此积极贡献的。 12月5日场 都市之冰演讲者：马尔科姆*塔克 在冰箱问世之前，保存食物和餐饮业都需要冰块。马尔科姆*塔克向听众介绍天热冰块的引进史，建设冰井的技术，及伦敦的冰块贸易发展史。 2月6日场 科兹沃尔德丘陵运河的演变演讲者：利兹*佩恩 斯特劳德大运河将在不久后重新开放，而泰晤士河和塞文河还需要更久的时间。我们将对当前的发展进行解说。 3月6日场 河中“小岛”---泰晤士河岛演讲者：米兰达*维克 泰晤士河岛有很多小岛，米兰达对其都有所了解，她将向我们介绍其中最有趣的几个岛屿。在线订票：...... 更多信息..... B 今年冬天，寒冷的东北部实在是不适合过冬，所以当这个周末恰好有机会去佛罗里达的萨拉索塔时，天还没亮，我就迫不及待的收拾好行囊出发了。萨拉索塔是个温暖的地方，十分养人，一路上我都在想象着那里的沙滩和橙子树。当我们到达目的地，看到蔚蓝的天空，感受到温暖的空气时，我心中油然而生一种感激之情。整个周末我们都在游泳，品美酒，观日落（日落时间是在傍晚时分，不是下午四点），但是最和我口味的就是每天早晨7点的蔬菜大抢购，现在我们每天7点起床去萨拉索塔的农贸市场抢购蔬菜，为了这些蔬菜，起得再早也值得。 该农贸市场始建于1979年，每周六从早上七点开放至下午一点，沿着北柠檬街和洲街搭起帐篷，无论严寒酷暑，风雨无阻。市场种蔬菜水果品种繁多，有成筐的水灵灵的红草莓，有Java Dawg的咖啡卡车，车的两侧都刷着红漆，最吸人眼球的就是西红柿，又大又软，圆润红透。 我曾有过很多次买到（卖家）保证是自然成熟的西红柿，但实际却并非如此，失望之极，我已经很多年不在冬天买西红柿了。无论它们在商店里看上去多么诱人，只要一拿回家就会变干变硬，食之无味。但是在Brown’s Grove农场一个特殊的摊位上，全都是新鲜柔软的西红柿，犹如拳头大小，由于过后我还是买了一些。这笔交易还真不赖。在那一刻，我意识到冬天在萨拉索塔最好的经历就是，可以吃到一些回到纽约之后几个月都吃不到的食物。 看着眼前的西红柿，我很高兴，尤其是当我发现Brown’s Grove农场是Jack Dusty 的供应商之一时我更加开心了。Jack Dusty是在萨拉索塔丽嘉登酒店新开的一家餐厅。我也真是幸运，本来那晚我就打算去那里吃饭的。到了那儿我甚至可以不看菜单，就知道直接点和西红柿有关的菜就可以了。 C
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全国卷高考英语真题 Standardization of sany group #QS8QHH-HHGX8Q8-GNHHJ8-HHMHGN#
绝密★启用前 2017年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 本试卷共150分，共14页。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。注意事项： 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须使用毫米黑字迹的签 字笔书写，字体工整，笔迹清楚。 3.请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 4.作图可先用铅笔画出，确定后必须用黑色字迹的签字笔描黑。 5.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题，每小题分，满分分） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt A．￡B．￡C．￡ 答案是C。 1．What will the woman do this afternoon A．Do some exercise. B．Go shopping. C． Wash her clothes. 2．Why does the woman call the man A ．To cancel a flight. B． To make an apology. C． To put off a meeting. 3．How much more does David need for the car A．$ 5,000. B．$20,000. C．$25,000.
2016普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国新课标卷1） 英语答案解析 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分听力 第一节 1.【答案】C 2.【答案】B 3.【答案】A 4.【答案】C 5.【答案】A 第二节 6.【答案】C 7.【答案】B 8.【答案】A 9.【答案】A 10.【答案】C 11.【答案】B 12.【答案】B 13.【答案】C 14.【答案】A 15.【答案】B 16.【答案】B 17.【答案】A 18.【答案】C 19.【答案】A 20.【答案】B 第二部分阅读理解 第一节 21.【答案】A 【解析】根据第二段首句可知她是一位社会工作者，而且获得过诺贝尔和平奖，故选A。
22.【答案】C 【解析】根据第四段中she could not find work at a law firm because she was a woman可知，她因为是女性而被法律公司拒绝录用，故选C。 23.【答案】D 【解析】根据末段倒数第二句中and kicked off the civil-rights movement可知，Rosa Parks对民权运动做出了贡献，故选D。 24.【答案】C 【解析】根据文章对这几个人物的介绍可知，这些女性都是在各自的领域为社会做出贡献的先驱。故选C。 25.【答案】A 【解析】根据首段末句可知，Mildred Garza老人搬到离孩子近的地方居住让他们的关系更密切，一家人认为这是一个成功的故事，故选A。 26.【答案】D 【解析】根据第二段末句Two thirds believe more families will follow the example of Obama's family可知，很多人会受Marian Robinson的影响，所以这回形成一种潮流。故选D。 27.【答案】C 【解析】根据第三段首句可知，在60年代人们都希望离开家，以此来证明自己的独立。故选C。 28.【答案】A 【解析】根据末段推知，作者建议人们要明智不要为了孩子而做出牺牲。故选A。 29.【答案】B 【解析】根据本段内容I've done 89 trips和I have 42 hours to carry stem cells in my little box以及第二段内容可知作者是运送干细胞的人，也就是delivery man。故选B。 30.【答案】D 【解析】根据第一段第二句I have 42 hours to carry stem cells in my little box because I've got two ice packs and that's how long they last.可知冰盒只能保持42小时适宜的温度，故选D 31.【答案】B 【解析】根据第二段末句She arranged for a flight on a small plane to be held for me, re-routed me through Newark可知，这位好心的女士首先安排作者去Newark的航班，故选B。 32.【答案】C 【解析】根据文章首段首句The meaning of silence varies among cultural groups可知，作者认为沉默是有文化特性的。 33.【答案】A
2011年全国卷I 阅读 A Pet owners are being encouraged to take their animals to work, a move scientists say can be good for productivity, workplace morale (士气), and the well-being of animals. A study found that 25% of Australian women would like to keep an office pet. Sue Chaseling of Petcare Information Service said the practice of keeping office pets was good both for the people and the pets. “On the pets’ side, they are not left on their own and won’t feel lonely and unhappy,” she said. A study of major US companies showed that 73% found office pets beneficial, while 27% experienced a drop in absenteeism (缺勤). Xarni Riggs has two cats walking around her Global Hair Salon in Paddington. “My customers love them. T hey are their favorites,” she said. “They are not troublesome. They know when to go and have a sleep in the sun.” Little black BJ has spent nearly a ll his two years “working” at Punch Gallery in Balmain. Owner Iain Powell said he had had cats at the gallery for 15 years. “BJ often lies in the shop window and people walking past tap on the glas s,” he said. Ms Chaseling said cats were popular in service industries because they enabled a point of conversation. But she said owners had to make sure both their co-workers and the cats were comfortable. 56. The percentage of American companies that are in favor of keeping office pets is ______. A. 73% B. 27% C. 25% D. 15% 57. We know from the text that “BJ” ______. A. works in the Global Hair Salon B. often greets the passers-by C. likes to sleep in the sun D. is a two-year-old cat 58. The best title for this text would be ______. A. Pets Help Attract Customers B. Your Favorite Office Pets C. Pets Join the Workforce D. Busy Life for Pets B MONTREAL (Reuters) --- Crossing the US-Canada border to go to church on a Sunday cost a US citizen ＄10,000 for breaking Washington’s strict new security rules. The expensive trip to church was a surprise for Richard Albert, who lives right on the Canadian border. Like the other half-dozen people of Township 15, crossing the border is a daily occurrence for Albert. The nearby Quebec village of St. Pamphile is where they shop, eat and go to church. There are many such situations in these areas along the largely unguarded 5, 530-mile border between Canada and the US- which in some cases actually runs down the middle of streets or through buildings. As a result, Albert says he did not expect any problems three weeks ago when he returned home to the US after attending church in Canada, as usual. The US customs station in this area is closed on Sundays, so he just drove around the locked gate, as he had done every weekend since the gate appeared last May, following a tightening of border security. Two days later, Albert was told to go to the customs office, where an officer told him he had been caught on camera crossing the border illegally. Ottawa has given out special passes to some 300 US citizens in that area so they can enter the country when Canadian customs stations are closed, but the US stopped a similar program last May. That forces the people to a 200-mile detour along hill roads to get home country through another border checkpoint. Albert has requested that the customs office change their decisions on the fine, but he has not attended a Sunday church since. “I feel like I’m living in a prison,” he said. 59. We learn from the text that Richard Albert is ______. A. an American living in Township 15 B. a Canadian living in a Quebec village
2020普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试 卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题分，满分分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项 中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时 间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt A.￡. B.￡. C.￡. 答案是C. 1. Where does the conversation probably take place A. In a supermarket. B. In the post office. C. In the street 2. What did Carl do A. He designed a medal. B. He fixed a TV set. C. He took a test. 3. What does the man do A. He’s a tailor. B. He’s a waiter. C. He’s a shop assistant. 4. When will the flight arrive A. At18:20. B. At 18:35. C. At 18:50. 5. How can the man improve his article A. By deleting unnecessary words. B. By adding a couple of points. C. By correcting grammar mistakes. 第二节（共15小题：每小题15分，满分分） 听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5移钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does Bill often do on Friday night his parents. B. Go to the movies. C. Walk along Broadway. 7. Who watches musical plays most often . B. Sarah. C. Bill’s parents. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Why does David want to speak to Mike A. To invite him to a party. B. To discuss a schedule. C. To call off a meeting. 9. What do we know about the speakers A. They are colleagues.
2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷1） 英语 第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡ 9.18. C. ￡ 9.15. 答案是C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program. B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious. C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car B. On foot C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient. 第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分。满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题 6. What does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. What is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the mam? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9. What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours.
绝密★启用前 2015年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试新课标1 英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。第Ⅰ卷1页至10页，第Ⅱ卷11页至13页。 2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名，准考证号填写在本试卷相应的位置。 3. 全部答案在答题卡上完成，搭载本试卷上无效。 4. 第Ⅰ卷听力部分满分30分，不计入总分，考试成绩录取时提供给高校作参考。 5. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）略 做题时，现将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）（略） 听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A,B,C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A.￡ 19.15 B.￡ 9.18 C.￡ 9.15 答案是C。 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分60分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题3分，满分45分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Monthly Talks at London Canal Museum Our monthly talks start at 19:30 on the first Thursday of each month except August. Admission is at normal charges and you don’t need to book. They end around 21:00. November 7th
徐老师 2019年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷1） 英语 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是C。 1. Where does this conversation take place? A. In a classroom. B. In a hospital. C. In a museum. 2. What does Jack want to do? A. Take fitness classes. B. Buy a pair of gym shoes. C. Change his work schedule. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. What to drink. B. Where to meet. C. When to leave. 4. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Colleges. B. Classmates. C. Strangers. 5. Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation? 第1页
2018高考英语全国二卷真题 考 第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) A Summer Activities Students should read the list with their parents/carers, and select two activities they would like to do. Forms will be available in school and online for them to indicate their choices and return to school. Before choices are finalized, parents/ carer s will be asked to sign to confirm their child’s choices. 21. Which activity will you choose if you want to go camping? A. OUT. B. WBP. C. CRF. D. POT. 22. What will the students do on Tuesday with Mrs. Wilson? A. Travel to London. B. See a parade and fireworks. C. Tour central Paris. D. Visit the WWI battlefields.
23. How long does Potty about Potter last? A. Two days. B. Four days. C. Five days. D. One week. B Many of us love July because it’s the month when nature’s berries and stone fruits are in abundance. These colourful and sweet jewels form British Columbia’s fields are little powerhouses of nutritional protection. Of the common berries, strawberries are highest in vitamin C, although, because of their seeds, raspberries contain a little more protein (蛋白质), iron and zinc (not that fruits have much protein). Blueberries are particularly high in antioxidants (抗氧化物质). The yellow and orange stone fruits such as peaches are high in the carotenoids we turn into vitamin A and which are antioxidants. As for cherries (樱桃), they are so delicious who cares? However, they are rich in vitamin C. When combined with berries of slices of other fruits, frozen bananas make an excellent base for thick, cooling fruit shakes and low fat “ice cream”. For this purpose, select ripe bananas for freezing as they are much sweeter. Remove the skin and place them in plastic bags or containers and freeze. If you like, a squeeze of fresh lemon juice on the bananas will prevent them turning brown. Frozen bananas will last several weeks, depending on their ripeness and the temperature of the freezer. If you have a juicer, you can simply feed in frozen bananas and some berries or sliced fruit. Out comes a “soft-serve” creamy dessert, to be eaten right away. This makes a fun activity for a children’s party; they love feeding the fruit and frozen bananas into the top of the machine and watching the ice cream come out below. 24. What does the author seem to like about cherries? A. They contain protein. B. They are high in vitamin A. C. They have a pleasant taste. D. They are rich in antioxidants. 25. Why is fresh lemon juice used in freezing bananas? A. To make them smell better. B. To keep their colour. C. To speed up their ripening. D. To improve their nutrition. 26. What is “a juicer” in the last paragraph? A. A dessert. B. A drink. C. A container. D. A machine. 27. From which is the text probably taken? A. A biology textbook. B. A health magazine. C. A research paper. D. A travel brochure. C Teens and younger children are reading a lot less for fun, according to a Common Sense Media report published Monday. While the decline over the past decade is steep for teen readers, some data in the report shows that reading remains a big part of many children’s lives, and indicates how parents might help encourage more reading. According to the report’s key findings, “the proportion (比例) who say they ‘hardly ever’ read for fun has gone from 8 percent of 13-year-olds and 9 percent of 17-year-olds in 1984 to 22 percent and 27 percent respectively today.” The report data shows that pleasure reading levels for younger children, ages 2—8, remain largely the same.