2020年全国新高考英语浙江卷
(新高考浙江卷)
第一部分：
略
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分35分)
第一节(共10小题：每小题 2.5分，满分25分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
I am an active playgoer and play-reader，and perhaps my best reason for editing this book is a hope of sharing my enthusiasm for the theater with
others. To do this I have searched through dozens of plays to find the
ones that I think best show the power and purpose of the short play.
Each play has a theme or central idea which the playwright(剧作家)hopes to get across through dialogue and action. A few characters are used to
create a single impression growing out of the theme. It is not my
intention to point out the central theme of each of the plays in this
collection，for that would，indeed，ruin the pleasure of reading，
discussing，and thinking about the plays and the effectiveness of the playwright. However，a variety of types is represented here. These
include comedy，satire，poignant drama，historical and regional drama.
To show the versatility(多面性)of the short play，I have included a guidance play，a radio play and a television play.
Among the writers of the plays in this collection，Paul Green，Susan Glaspell，Maxwell Anderson，Thornton Wilder，William Saroyan，and Tennessee Williams have all received Pulitzer Prizes for their
contributions to the theater. More information about the playwrights will
be found at the end of this book.
To get the most out of reading these plays，try to picture the play on stage，with you，the reader，in the audience. The houselights dim(变暗). The curtains are about to open，and in a few minutes the action and dialogue will tell you the story.
21. What do we know about the author from the first paragraph?
A. He has written dozens of plays.
B. He has a deep love for the theater.
C. He is a professional stage actor.
D. He likes reading short plays to others.
22. What does the author avoid doing in his work?
A. Stating the plays' central ideas.
B. Selecting works by famous playwrights.
C. Including various types of plays.
D. Offering information on the playwrights.
23. What does the author suggest readers do while reading the plays?
A. Control their feelings.
B. Apply their acting skills.
C. Use their imagination.
D. Keep their audience in mind.
24. What is this text?
A. A short story.
B. An introduction to a book.
C. A play review.
D. An advertisement for a theater.
B
The traffic signals along Factoria Boulevard in Bellevue，Washington，generally don't flash the same length of green twice in a row，especially at rush hour. At9：30am，the full red/yellow/green signal cycle might be
140 seconds. By 9：33am，a burst of additional traffic might push it to 145 seconds. Less traffic at 9：37am could push it down to 135. Just like the
traffic itself，the timing of the signals changes.
That is by design. Bellevue，a fast-growing city，just east of Seattle，uses a system that is gaining popularity around the US：intersection(十字路口)signals that can adjust in real time to traffic conditions. These lights，known as adaptive signals，have led to significant declines in both the
trouble and cost of travels between work and home.
“Adaptive signals can make sure that the traffic demand that is there is
being addressed，”says Alex Stevanovic，a researcher at Florida Atlantic University.
For all of Bellevue's success，adaptive signals are not a cure-all for
jammed roadways. Kevin Balke，a research engineer at the Texas A&M University Transportation Institute，says that while smart lights can be particularly beneficial for some cities，others are so jammed that only a sharp reduction in the number of cars on the road will make a
meaningful difference. “It's not going to fix everything, but adaptive signals have some benefits for smaller cities,”he says.
In Bellevue, the switch to adaptive signals has been a lesson in the value
of welcoming new approaches. In the past, there was often an automatic reaction to increased traffic: just widen the roads, says Mark Poch, the Bellevue Transportation Department's traffic engineering manager. Now
he hopes that other cities will consider making their streets run smarter instead of just making them bigger.
25. What does the underlined word “that”in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Increased length of green lights.
B. Shortened traffic signal cycle.
C. Flexible timing of traffic signals.
D. Smooth traffic flow on the road.
26. What does Kevin Balke say about adaptive signals?
A. ' They work better on broad roads.
B. They should be used in other cities.
C. They have greatly reduced traffic on the road.
D. They are less helpful in cities seriously jammed.
27. What can we learn from Bellevue's success?
A. It is rewarding to try new things.
B. The old methods still work today.
C. I pays to put theory into practice.
D. The simplest way is the best way.
C
Challenging work that requires lots of analytical thinking，planning and other managerial skills might help your brain stay sharp as you age，a study published Wednesday in the journal Neurology suggests.
Researchers from the University of Leipzig in Germany gathered more
than 1，000 retired workers who were over age 75 and assessed the
volunteers' memory and thinking skills through a battery of tests. Then，for eight years，the scientists asked the same group to come back to the
lab every 18 months to take the same sorts of tests.
Those who had held mentally stimulating(刺激)，demanding jobs before retirement tended to do the best on the tests. And they tended to lose
cognitive(认知)function at a much slower rate than those with the least
mentally challenging jobs. The results held true even after the scientists accounted for the participants' overall health status.
“This works just like physical exercise，”says Francisca Then，who led the study. “After a long run，you may feel like you're in pain，you may feel tired. But it makes you fit. After a long day at work-sure，you will feel tired，but it can help your brain stay healthy. ”
It's not just corporate jobs，or even paid work that can help keep your
brain fit，Then points out. A waiter's job，for example，that requires multitasking，teamwork and decision-making could be just as
stimulating as any high-level office work. And “running a family household requires high-level planning and coordinating(协调)，”she says. “You have to organize the activities of the children and take care of
the bills and groceries.
Of course，our brains can decline as we grow older for lots of
reasons-including other environmental influences or genetic factors.
Still，continuing to challenge yourself mentally and keeping your mind
busy can only help.
28. Why did the scientists ask the volunteers to take the tests?
A. To assess their health status.
B. To evaluate their work habits.
C. To analyze their personality.
D. To measure their mental ability.
29. How does Francisca Then explain her findings in paragraph 4?
A. By using an expert's words.
B. By making a comparison.
C. By referring to another study.
D. By introducing a concept.
30. Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A. Retired Workers Can Pick Up New Skills
B. Old People Should Take Challenging Jobs
C. Your Tough Job Might Help Keep You Sharp
D. Cognitive Function May Decline As You Age
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
I experienced years of loneliness as a child. 31 His friends teased him
about babysitting his sister and his interests were far different from mine.
With no other kids of my age in the neighborhood，I had to spend hours by myself.
A bright spot for me turned out to be reading. My love of the written
word began early as my mother read to me every evening. 32 I started
reading books on my own before age 5 and my mother took me to the
public library once a week to borrow several books. I quickly graduated
from typical children's books to ones with fewer pictures and longer
chapters. Reading opened new worlds to me. 33 .
My mother also encouraged me to make what I wanted. I tried making
toy cars with cardboard boxes and constructing buildings from leftover
cardboard and bits of wood my father gave me. When my mother saw
my creations，she told me how creative my designs were. 34 I learned a
lot about how to extend the life of objects and transform them into
something new and useful. It was a trait(特点)others found helpful，and I soon had friends who wanted to make things with me.
35 My parents made it a point for their two kids to spend time outside，no matter the weather or season. My brother，of course，raced off to be with his friends，while I had plenty to do myself. There was making leaf
houses in autumn，ice skating in winter，and so much more. They're all memories I treasure today.
A. I wasn't alone any longer.
B. I enjoyed reading stories aloud.
C. I was invited to play with another kid.
D. I loved the colorful photographs in the books.
E. Another habit I formed early was being outdoors.
F. Thus，I began my lifelong interest in making things.
G. My older brother couldn't be bothered to play with me.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
I've been farming sheep on a hillside for 54 years. I use a small tractor to
get about. My dog Don always sits beside me in the passenger scat.
One morning l 36 a lost lamb when I was in the top field，near where a motorway cuts through my land. 'The lamb had become separated from
its 37 ，so I jumped out of the tractor to 38 it while Don stayed in his scat.
Lamb and mother 39 ，I turned back to the tractor only to see it move suddenly away from me. 1his was so 40 because I had put the handbrake
on when I jumped out. 41 Don had somehow made the 42 move.
My heart froze in my chest as I 43 the tractor heading towards the 44 .I
ran desperately but failed to 45 . It crashed through a wooden fence and disappeared. The 46 thing I saw was Don's face，looking calmly back at me.
Heart in mouth，I 47 the fence and looked over. The tractor
was 48 against the crash barrier in the central reservation，having miraculously(奇迹般地)crossed the 49road with fast-flowing traffic. I
couldn't see Don，but as I 50 the tractor he jumped out onto the road，apparently 51 ，and dashed back to me.
The police 52 and the motorway ran normally again. I couldn't quite
believe my53 it turned out no one got badly hurt，but the outcome could have been 54 .Don was given a special 55 that night-I didn't want him
thinking I was angry with him.
36. A. dropped
B. spotted
C. carried
D. returned
37. A. kids
B. friends
C. owner
D. mother
38. A. ask about
B. play with
C. tend to
D. run into
39. A. freed
B. switched
C. reunited
D. examined
40. A. unexpected
B. dangerous
C. embarrassing
D. difficult
41. A. Fortunately
B. Generally
C. Immediately
D. Obviously
42. A. lamb
B. vehicle
C. seat
D. fence
43. A. saw
B. stopped
C. remembered
D. drove
44. A. crowd
B. motorway
C. field
D. hill
45. A. take off
B. catch up
C. hold back
D. get out
46. A. real
B. best
C. basic
D. last
47. A. fixed
B. noticed
C. reached
D. closed
48. A. resting
B. running
C. parking
D. turning
49. A. sleep
B. long
C. rough
D. busy
50. A. abandoned
B. approached
C. recognized
D. repaired
51. A. unclean
B. uncertain
C. unhurt
D. unhappy
52. A. arrived
B. replied
C. survived
D. waited
53. A. ability
B. dream
C. luck
D. idea
54. A. common
B. confusing
C. desirable
D. awful
55. A. meal
B. test
C. job
D.
lesson
非选择题部分
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分45分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。Some time after 10，000 BC，people made the first real attempt to control
the world they lived 56 ，through agriculture. Over thousands of years，
they began to depend less on 57 could be hunted or gathered from the
wild，and more on animals they had raised and crops they had sown.
Farming produced more food per person 58 hunting and gathering，so people were able to raise more children. And，as more children were born，more food 59(need). Agriculture gave people their first experience
of the power of technology 60(change)lives.
By about 6000 BC，people 61 (discover)the best crops to grow and
animals to raise. Later，they learned to work with the 62 (season)，planting at the right time and，in dry areas， 63 (make)use of annual floods to irrigate(灌溉)their fields.
This style of farming lasted for quite a long time. Then，with 64 rise of science，changes began. New methods 65 (mean)that fewer people
worked in farming. In the last century or so，these changes have accelerated. New power machinery and artificial fertilizers(化肥)have now totally transformed a way，of life that started in the Stone Age.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你校来自爱尔兰的外教Peter因病回国休假。请给他写一封电子邮件，内容包括： 1. 询问近况;2. 分享班级最新消息;3. 表达祝愿。
注意：1. 词数80左右;2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
One fall，my wife Elli and I had a single goal：to photograph polar bears. We were staying at a research camp outside “the polar bear capital of the world”-the town of Churchill in Manitoba，Canada.
Taking pictures of polar bears is amazing but also dangerous. Polar
bears-like all wild animals-should be photographed from a safe distance.
When I'm face to face with a polar bear，I like it to be through
a camera with a telephoto lens. But sometimes，that is easier said than done. This was one of those times.
As Elli and I cooked dinner，a young male polar bear who was playing in
a nearby lake sniffed，and smelled our garlic bread.
The hungry bear followed his nose to our camp，which was surrounded by a high wire fence. He pulled and bit the wire. He stood on his back
legs and pushed at the wooden fence posts.
Terrified，Elli and I tried all the bear defense actions we knew. We yelled
at the bear，hit pots hard，and fired blank shotgun shells into the air. Sometimes loudnoises like these will scare bears off. Not this polar bear
though-he just kept trying to tear down the fence with his massive
paws(爪子).
1 radioed the camp manager for help. He told me a helicopter was on its
way，but it would be 30 minutes before it arrived. Making the best of this
close encounter(相遇)，I took some pictures of the bear.
Elli and I feared the fence wouldn't last through 30 more minutes of the
bear's punishment. The camp manager suggested I use
pepper spray. The spray burns the bears' eyes，but doesn't hurt them. So
I approached our uninvited guest slowly and，through the fence，sprayed him in the face. With an angry roar(吼叫)，the bear ran to the lake to wash
his eyes.
注意：
1. 所续写短文的词数应为150左右;
2. 至少使用5个短文中标有下划线的关键词语;
3. 续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好;
4. 续写完成后，请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语。
Para 1 . A few minutes later , the bear headed back to our camp.
Para 2. At that very moment , the helicopter arrived .
参考答案
2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（浙江） 英语试题 选择题部分（共80分） 第一部分：英语知识应用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节：单项填空（共20小题，每小题0.5分，满分10分） 从A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该选项标号涂黑。 1. ---I am going to Spain fort a holiday soon. --- ______. A. It?s my pleasure B. Never mind C. Leave it alone D. Good for you 2. The paper is due next month, and I am working seven days ______ week, often long into______night. A. Aa; the B. the; 不填 C. a; a D. 不填；the 3.An average of just 18.75cm of rain fell last year, making ______ the driest year since California became a state in 1850. A. each B. it C. this D. one 4.Joe is proud and ______, never admitting he is wrong and always looking for someone else to blame. A. strict B. sympathetic C. stubborn D. sensitive 5.I don?t become a serious climber until the fifth grade, ______ I went up to rescue a kite that was stuck in the branches of a tree. A. when B. where C. which D. why 6.We most prefer to say yes to the ______ of someone we know and like. A. attempts B. requests C. doubts D. promises https://www.doczj.com/doc/e517964975.html,st week a tennis ball hit me on the head, but I tried to _______ the pain, believing that it would go away sooner or later. A. share B. realize C. ignore D. cause 8.“Every time you eat a sweet, drink green tea.” This is _____ my mother used to tell me. A. what B. how C. that D. whether 9.No matter how carefully you plan your finances, no one can _____ when the unexpected will happen. A. prove B. imply C. demand D. predict 10.While staying in the village, James unselfishly shared whatever he had with the villagers without asking for anything ______ . A. in return B. in common C. in turn D. in place 11.Sofia looked around at all the faces: she had the impression that she _____ most of the guests before. A. has seen B. had seen C. saw D. would see 12.Facing up to your problem ____ running away from them is the best approach to working things out. A. more than B. rather than C. along with D.or rather 13.The aim of education is to teach young people to think for themselves and not follow others ______ . A. blindly B. unwillingly C. closely D. carefully 14.Annie Salmon, disabled, is attended throughout her school days by a nurse _______ to guard her. A. to appoint B. appointing C. appointed D. having appointed 15.Cathy had quit her job when her son was born _______ she could stay home and raise her family. A.now that B. as if C. only if D. so that 16.They were abroad during the months when we were carrying out the investigation, or they _____ to our help. A. would have come B. could come C. have come D. had come 17.People won?t pay attention to you when they still have a lot of ideas of their own crying _______ expression. A. from B. over C. with D. for 18.There?s no reason to be disappointed. ______, this could be rather amusing. A. Above all B. As a result C. In addition D. As a matter of fact 19.How could you ______ such a fantastic job when you have been out of work for months. A. turn off B. turn in C.turn down D. turn to 20.—I?d like a wake-up call at 7:00 a.m., please! —OK, _______. 1
浙江高考英语试题及答案2020 延伸阅读： 高考英语完形填空答题技巧 第一步：跳过空格，通读全文，把握大意。 第一遍读文章时不要做题，而是跳过空格，通读试题所给的要填空的短文，获得整体印象，做到弄清文脉、抓住主旨，较好地把握 短文大意。平时自己做题时，如果读一遍读不懂，那就读两遍，读 两遍还是读不懂，那就再读一遍。一定要记住“读不懂文章不要做题”，因为没有理解文章做了也是白做，既浪费时间又浪费精力， 还自欺欺人，危害不小。总之，一定要在理解短文意思的基础上才 能开始做题。 另外，读第一遍时要注意先读懂文章的首句和末句，因为这两句往往是没有被挖空的句子。它们往往是全文的关键句，是文章的 “窗口”和“指南”，可作为解题的突破口。通过读文章的首句一 般可判断文章的体裁、人物、时间、事件和事态等。文章的最后一 句或最后一段，往往是故事发展的结果，所陈述的事件的结论、启 示性的提示，或是对全篇文章的概括。因此，先读一读末句对理解 文章是很有帮助的。 第二步：结合选项，综合考虑，初选答案。 在理解全文意思的基础上，结合所给备选项再次细读全文。联系上、下文内容。注意从上、下文的语法结构和词语搭配及从选择项 中寻找解题的提示。以词、句的意义为先，再从分析句子结构人手，根据短文意思、语法规则、词语固定搭配等进行综合考虑，对备选 项逐一进行分析、比较和筛选，排除干扰项，初步选定答案。有把 握的先做，没有把握的“跳过”。 第三步：先易后难，瞻前顾后，各个击破。
对比较明显、自己最有把握的答案先做，一下子不能确定答案的，先跳过这一空格，继续往下做，最后回过头来再集中精力解决难点。这时可结合已确定答案的选项再读一遍短文，随着对短文理解的深入，自然就会降低试题的难度，提高选择的正确率。 值得一提的是，近年来的高考完形填空，已很少有纯粹的语法题材。完形填空主要考查考生根据不完整的上下文，推断出文段发展 走向的逻辑思维能力，其考查的重点不是语法和词法的知识。任何 一篇文章的句子结构和内容上不会孤立存在，句子与句子之间是有 很强的逻辑关系的。因此，必须借助上下文的一些暗示才能正确解题。 第四步：复读全文，逐空验证，弥补疏漏。 做完所有的空格后，把所选的答案补入空格中，把文章通读一遍，逐空认真复查，看所选定的答案是否使短文意思前后连贯、顺理成章，语法结构是否正确，是否符合习惯表达法，发现误选的答案或 有疑问的、不清楚的答案，再次推敲，作出修正。 猜你喜欢：
第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共10小题，每小题2.5分，满分25分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并再答题纸上将该项涂黑。 A Suddenly another thought went through Kate’s mind like an electric shock. An express train was due to go past about thirty minutes later. If it were not stopped, that long train, full of passengers, would fall into the stream. “Someone must go to the station and warn the station-master,” Kate thought. But who was to go? She would have to go herself. There was no one else. In wind and rain, she started on her difficult was. Soon she was at the bridge that crossed the Des Moines River, a bridge also built of wood, just like the bridge across Honey Creek. The storm had not washed this away, but there was no footpath across it. She would have to cross it by stepping from sleeper(枕木) to sleeper. With great care she began the dangerous crossing, sometimes on her hands and knees, hardly daring to look down between the sleepers into the wild flood waters below. If she should slip, she would fall between the sleepers, into the rapidly flowing stream. At last -she never knew how long it had taken her – she felt solid ground under her feet. But there was no time to rest. She still had to run more than half a mile and had only a few minutes left. Unless she reached the station before the express did, many, many lives would be lost. She did reach the station just as the train came into sight. Fortunately, the station-master was standing outside. “The bridge is down! Stop the train! Oh, please stop it!” Kate shouted breathlessly. The station-master went pale. He rushed into the station building and came back with a signal light. He waved the red light as the train came into the station. It was not a second too early. 21. What did Kate decide to do? A. Stop the express train. B. Check the signal light. C. Meet the passengers. D. Visit the station-master. 22. Which of the following words best describes Kate’s journey? A. Fruitless. B. Boring. C. Well-planned. D. Ricky. 23. Why did the station-master turn pale? A. He suddenly fell ill. B. He realized the danger. C. He discovered his mistake. D. He became over-excited. B The Crowne Plaza Hotel in Copenhagen is offering a free meal to man guest who is able to produce electricity for the hotel on an exercise bile linked to a generator(发电机). The idea is to get people fit and reduce their carbon footprint. Guest will have to produce at least 10 watt hours of electricity – roughly 15 minutes of cycling for someone of average fitness. Guests staying at Plaza Hotel will be given meal tickets worth $36 once they have produced 10 watt hours of electricity. The bicycles will have smart phones attached to the handlebars measuring how much power is being generated for the hotel. The plan, a world-first, will start on 19 April and run for a year. Only guest staying at the hotel will be able to take part. Frederikke Toemmergaard, hotel spokeswoman, said, “Many of our visitors are business people who enjoy going to the gym. There might be people who will cycle just to get a free meal, but generally I don’t think people will take advantage of our programme.” Copenhagen has a long-standing cycling tradition an 36% of locals cycle to work each day, one of the highest percentages in the world, according to the website visitcopenhagen.dk. US environmental website https://www.doczj.com/doc/e517964975.html, recently voted Copenhagen the world’s best city for cyclists. “Because Copenhagen is strongly connected with cycling, we felt the bicycle would work well as symbol of the hotel’s green profile(形象).” If successful, the electric bicycle meal programme will be spread to all Crowne Plaza hotels in the UK, the hotel said in a statement. 24. What is the main purpose of the free meal programme? A. To promote the hotel’s green concept. B. To make the city known to the world. C. To attract people to the hotel restaurant. D. To get guests to stay longer at the hotel. 25. How can a participant get a free meal? A. By becoming a professional cyclist. B. By cycling to produce some electricity.
2015年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(江苏卷) 英语 第一部分听力(共两节,满分 20 分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分) 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例： How much is the shirt? A. ￡ 19.15 B. ￡ 9.18 C. ￡ 9.15 答案是C。 1. 1. What time is it now? A. 9:10 B. 9:50 C. 10:00 2. What does the woman think of the weather? It’s nice. It’s warm It’s cold. 3. What will the man do? A. Attend a meeting. B. Give a lecture C. Leave his office. 4. What is the woman’s opinion about the course? A. Too hard B. Worth taking. C. Very easy. 5. What does the woman want the man to do? A. Speak louder B. Apologize to her. C. Turn off the radio.
2014年浙江高考英语作文范文： Dear Mr. Wang, Knowing that our library is going to buy books, I’d like to give some suggestions. What we need most are popular science books. Usually popular science books explain basic principles of nature in a simple and interesting way. They help us understand science subjects better and arouse our curiosity about scientific discoveries. In addition to reading for knowledge, we read for fun and inspiration. That is why I recommend another category of books：literary books. Classic works, written by masters, present great thoughts through fascinating stories and language. They not only offer us joy and excitement, but also encourage us to think critically. I’ll be glad if you can consider my recommendation. Yours sincerely, Li Yue
2014年3月23日浙江省高考英语听力试题与答案（附听力原文）第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What will the woman do about the dress? C A. She’ll change it. B. She’ll return it. C. She’ll buy it. 2. What are the speakers talking about? B A. Buying DVDs. B. Borrowing DVDs. C. Sharing DVDs. 3. What did the woman think of Dana’s speech? C A. Boring. B. Important. C. Well-prepared. 4. What does the man mean? A A. He is unable to give help. B. He will carry the boxes later. C. He refuses to pay for boxes. 5. When is Simon supposed to arrive? B A. 7:30. B. 8:00. C. 8:10. 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各个小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7题。 6. Where do the speakers plan to go? C A. The woman’s home. B. A museum. C. A library. 7. Why does the woman want to go on Saturday afternoon? B A. To enjoy nice weather. B. To sleep late in the morning. C. To avoid the crowd. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10题。 8. Why did the man borrow the woman’s computer last time? A A. He needed it for his paper. B. His computer was broken. C. He used it for his computer class. 9. Why does the woman feel happy? B A. The man can lend her a computer now. B. The man will use his own computer. C. The man will study better.
浙江高考英语新题型分析 1、听力回归，和笔试一起考，题型和分值均不变。 2、阅读题量减少到10道，但是阅读和完形填空的分值上升，巩固了这两个传统难题的地位。阅读从2分一道增加为2.5分一道；完形填空从1分一道增加为1.5分一道；同时阅读部分增加7选5题型，对浙江的高中生来说是一个新题型。 3、单选题取消，改错题取消，增加“语法填空”，以前不会的语法题还可以在四个选项中去猜，以后只能凭借硬功夫去填，“语感”也帮不了你了！ 4、写作分为两部分：小作文15分，为议论文，80个单词；大作文有两个类型，短文续写或者文章摘要，占25分；这两类作文形式对于浙江考生来说，都是十分新颖的，平时学校中也缺乏相应的训练，对于同学们来说会有较大的难度。 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节短对话（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where is Linda now? A. In the woman’s office B. In the classroom. C. In the library 2. What would the man like to do? A. To visit his parents. B. To drive to the countryside. C. To travel to another country. 3. What is the man going to do? A. Talk to more students. B. Collect more information C. Work on a research paper. 4. Where can the man get the tickets？ A. From the club. B. From Susan. C. From Tom. 5. What does the woman mean? A. She is warm enough. B. She has to study in. C. She likes the idea. 第二节长对话或独白（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅览室读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Police officers. B. Manager and clerk. C. Shop assistant and customer. 7. What are the speakers going to do? A. Open a store. B. Make a plan. C. Have a meeting. 听第7段材料，回答第8-10题 8. What’s the woman’s problem? A. She missed the wake up call. B. Her room service is out of order. C. She is unable to get her breakfast in time. 9. Who is going to deal with the problem? A. The hotel manager B. A room attendant. C. The woman herself. 10. How does the woman feel about the service?
2015江苏高考英语试卷 二、单选 21. The number of smokers, ______ is reported, has dropped by 17 percent in the past one year. A. it B. which C. that D. as 22. Schools should be lively places where individuals are encouraged to _____ to their greatest potential. A. accelerate B. improve C. perform D. develop 23. –Jim, can you work…..? --_____? I’ve been working two weeks on end. A. Why me B. Why not C. What if D. So what 24. Much time______ sitting at a desk, office workers are generally trapped by health problems. A. being spent B. having spent C. spent D. to spend 25. _____ Li Hua, a great Chinese poet, was born is known to the public, but…. A. That B. Why C. Where D. How 26. It is so cold that you can’t go outside______ fully covered in thick clothes. A. if B. unless C. once D. when 27. The university started some new language programmes to _______ the country’s Silk Road Economic Belt. A. apply to B. cater for C. appeal to D. … 28. It might have saved me much trouble______ the schedule. A. did I know B. have I known C. do I know D. had I known 29. The whole team ______ Donald, and he seldom let them down. A. wait on B. focus on C. count on D. call on 30. The reason why prices ______ and still are too high is complex, and no short discussion can satisfactory can explain this problem. A. were B. will be C. have been D. had been 31. The police officers decided to conduct a thorough, and ______ review of the case. A. comprehensive B. complicated C. suspicious D. … 32. Some schools will have to make _______ in agreement with the national social reform. A. judgments B. adjustments C. comments D. achievements 33. –Why didn’t you invite John to your birthday party? -- Well, you know he’s______. A.an early bird B. a wet blanket C. a lucky dog D. a tough nut 34. Many of the things we now benefit from would not be around_______ Thomas Edison. A. thanks to B. regardless of C. aside from D. but for 35. –Go and say sorry to your mom, Dave? -- I’d like to, but I’m afraid Mom would not accept my______. A. requests B. excuses C. apologies D. regrets
选择题部分（共80分） 第一部分：英语知识应用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节：单项填空（共20小题，每小题0.5分，满分10分） 从A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该选项标号涂黑。 1. ---I am going to Spain fort a holiday soon. --- ______. A. It’s my pleasure B. Never mind C. Leave it alone D. Good for you 2. The paper is due next month, and I am working seven days ______ week, often long into______night. A. a; the B. the; 不填 C. a; a D. 不填；the 3. An average of just 18.75cm of rain fell last year, making ______ the driest year since California became a state in 1850. A. each B. it C. this D. one
考点：考查代词辨析。 4. Joe is proud and ______, never admitting he is wrong and always looking for someone else to blame. A. strict B. sympathetic C. stubborn D. sensitive 5. I don’t become a serious climber until the fifth grade, ______ I went up to rescue a kite that was stuck in the branches of a tree. A. when B. where C. which D. why 6. We most prefer to say yes to the ______ of someone we know and like. A. attempts B. requests C. doubts D. promises
绝密★启用前 2018年6月普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（浙江卷） 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题分，满分25分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。 A In 1812, the year Charles Dickens was born, there were 66 novels published in Britain. People had been writing novels for a century—most experts date the first novel to Robinson Crusoe in 1719— but nobody wanted to do it professionally. The steam-powered printing press was still in its early stages; the literacy（识字） rate in England was under 50%. Many works of fiction appeared without the names of the authors, often with something like “By a lady.”Novels, for the most part, were looked upon as silly, immoral, or just plain bad. In 1870, when Dickens died, the world mourned him as its first professional writer and publisher, famous and beloved, who had led an explosion in both the publication of novels and their readership and whose characters — from Oliver Twist to Tiny Tim— were held up as moral touchstones. Today Dickens’ greatness is unchallenged. Removing him from the pantheon（名人堂） of English literature would make about as much sense as the Louvre selling off the Mona Lisa. How did Dickens get to the top For all the feelings readers attach to stories, literature is a numbers game, and the test of time is extremely difficult to pass. Some 60,000 novels were published during the Victorian age, from 1837 to1901; today a casual reader might be able to name a half-dozen of them. It’s partly true that Dickens’ style of writing attracted audiences from all walks of life. It’s partly t hat his writings rode a wave of social, political and scientific progress. But it’s also that he rewrote the culture of literature and put himself at the center. No one will ever know what mix of talent, ambition, energy and luck made Dickens such a singular writer. But as the 200th anniversary of his birth approaches, it is possible —and important for our own culture—to understand how he made himself a lasting one. 21. Which of the following best describes British novels in the 18th century
高考英语写作指导 一、应用文写作 评分标准总分15分，按5个档次给分。 1.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。（先锁定档次，再具体给分） 2.词数少于60词和多余100的，从总分减去2分。 3.评分时，应注意的主要内容：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 4.拼写和标点符号（切忌逗号不能连接两个完整的句子，要么用分号，要么用连词）是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 5.如书写较差，以致影响评阅，将分数降低一个档次。（注意保证书面整洁，不要有太多乱涂乱画的痕迹。） 档次描述 第五档（13-15分）完全覆盖了试题规定的任务；覆盖所有要点；应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用复杂语法结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言能力；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（10-12分）完全完成了试题规定的任务；虽漏掉了1-2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，有些许错误主要因尝试使用较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑；完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档（7-9分）基本完成了试题规定的任务；虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有内容；应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；全文内容连贯，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 写作步骤 （1）仔细审题，明确写作要求。那审题需要审什么？一审文体要求。了解题目要求写作的文体是应用文之书信、通知，演讲稿等。熟悉文体后即可确定全篇的写作格式与写作风格及段落结构之间的逻辑关系等。二审人称与时态。浏览题干要求后明确全文写作时态和人称，行文中做到两条主线贯穿始终：上下文人称统一，时态前后照应。三审要点。审题时弄清文章要点，各要点之间有什么联系。 （2）简单列出提纲，构建写作框架。根据文章要求，简单地想一想文章怎么构建，一些要点应该怎么表达，如句型、句式、词汇等。 （3）胸中有话，动手开篇成文。成文过程中设想一下平时学过的比较高级词汇和句型，如定语从句、状语从句、主语从句等。对于句型和词汇，有把握就用起来，没把握为了保险期间可以选择不用。 （4）细心通读，反复核查。要点是否遗漏、句子之间的衔接和过渡是否自然（多用连词，但是要明确句子间的关系，不要出现误用）语言是否得体，有无语法、拼写、表达错误。不要写几个词，点一下，切忌，在英文中一点就代表一个句号，这样会影响书面整洁。 二、读后续写